Both were Covenant and both in their time were delivered from death to life.
Let’s please try to stick to what the scriptures say.
Unless you are promoting Universal Reconciliation?
JLB
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Both were Covenant and both in their time were delivered from death to life.
I'm tired. I'll get back to you.
In the meanwhile read 2 Cor. 5:21.
Prepare
WIP,If we look closer at the Scripture verse you reference it says "might become."
For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
2 Corinthians 5:21
To receive what I said in saying both were eventually saved and delivered you must understand several things and have your doctrine in the right place.Let’s please try to stick to what the scriptures say.
Unless you are promoting Universal Reconciliation?
JLB
2 Corinthians 5:21 (KJV)
If you want to discuss the Samaritan woman or the Rich young ruler and why I hold to their eventual salvation make a post. I'll be there.
2 Corinthians 5:21 (KJV)
21 For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
1 Corinthians 15:42 (KJV)
42 So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption:
1 Corinthians 15:47 (KJV)
47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.
Romans 7:7 (KJV)
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
Romans 7:9 (KJV)
9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
Romans 7:13 (KJV)
13 Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful.
Genesis 2:17 (KJV)
17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.
I can prove through Scripture that she was Covenant, that Jesus healed her daughter and from that healing eventually when the time came delivered them both and saved. In this is proof her name was in the book of life of the lamb slain.I really don’t want to discuss whether the Samaritan woman’s name was written in the Lamb’s book of life, which was your claim.
That is a subject neither you nor I can prove.
I just want to discuss what we can know from His word that we can apply to our life.
I know you must have much to share with us in that regard.
JLB
So please point out the doctrine of imputation or as “imputed righteousness”, in these scriptures you quoted.
JLB
Oz,JLB,
Imputation is used to designate any action or word or thing as reckoned to a person. Thus in doctrinal language (1) the sin of Adam is imputed to all his descendants, i.e., it is reckoned as theirs, and they are dealt with therefore as guilty; (2) the righteousness of Christ is imputed to them that believe in him, or so attributed to them as to be considered their own; and (3) our sins are imputed to Christ, i.e., he assumed our "law-place," undertook to answer the demands of justice for our sins. In all these cases the nature of imputation is the same ( Romans 5:12-19 ; Compare Philemon 1:18 Philemon 1:19 ) [Easton's Bible Dictionary 3rd ed, courtesy Bible Study Tools).
A brief search with Google would have found this information quickly.
Oz
WIP,
MIGHT become in the Greek means WILL become.
It doesn't mean that a person might or might not become...(righteous)
as we would understand this using today's grammar..
It means that one WILL become (righteous).
This might help. Sorry if I misunderstood what you were asking...
https://biblehub.com/greek/1096.htm
I can prove through Scripture that she was Covenant, that Jesus healed her daughter
Oz,
I must say that I'm somewhat puzzled by what jeremiah1five is getting at. But I'm tired right now and will write to him tomorrow morning.
As to imputation -- I think we all know what it means. The question is: Was Adam's sin imputed to mankind?
I don't believe so. The EFFECT of Adam's sin is shared by all men, but according to scripture God does not hold us personally responsible for Adam's sin. It was Augustine who first came up with this theory (of Adam's sin being imputed to us).
As to Jesus, some will say that we are imputed with Jesus' righteousness...but then carry it so far as to say that we have no responsibility at all since we are entirely safe with Jesus. I don't know if this would fall under eternal security. I believe we are righteous by our belief in Jesus IF we follow His commands.
After all what does righteous mean?
Right with God.
IOW, is faith all we need or is there more?
Any other response will have to be for tomorrow.
Plenty of scripture but I can't do this now.
Night!
You're not the only one. I'm somewhat puzzled by what I'm getting at.Oz,
I must say that I'm somewhat puzzled by what jeremiah1five is getting at. But I'm tired right now and will write to him tomorrow morning.
As to imputation -- I think we all know what it means. The question is: Was Adam's sin imputed to mankind?
I don't believe so. The EFFECT of Adam's sin is shared by all men, but according to scripture God does not hold us personally responsible for Adam's sin. It was Augustine who first came up with this theory (of Adam's sin being imputed to us).
As to Jesus, some will say that we are imputed with Jesus' righteousness...but then carry it so far as to say that we have no responsibility at all since we are entirely safe with Jesus. I don't know if this would fall under eternal security. I believe we are righteous by our belief in Jesus IF we follow His commands.
After all what does righteous mean?
Right with God.
IOW, is faith all we need or is there more?
Any other response will have to be for tomorrow.
Plenty of scripture but I can't do this now.
Night!
JLB,
Imputation is used to designate any action or word or thing as reckoned to a person. Thus in doctrinal language (1) the sin of Adam is imputed to all his descendants, i.e., it is reckoned as theirs, and they are dealt with therefore as guilty; (2) the righteousness of Christ is imputed to them that believe in him, or so attributed to them as to be considered their own; and (3) our sins are imputed to Christ, i.e., he assumed our "law-place," undertook to answer the demands of justice for our sins. In all these cases the nature of imputation is the same ( Romans 5:12-19 ; Compare Philemon 1:18 Philemon 1:19 ) [Easton's Bible Dictionary 3rd ed, courtesy Bible Study Tools).
A brief search with Google would have found this information quickly.
Oz
OK now. Are we defining the English translation or the Greek?wondering,
In 2 Cor 5:21, the word translated 'might become' is genwmetha, from ginomai (I become) The verb genwmetha in 2 Cor 5:21 is parsed as: first person, plural number, aorist tense, subjunctive mood.
The indicative mood is the mood of reality, e.g. Jesus died on the cross. The subjunctive mood is the mood of probability, e.g. Jesus may die on the cross.
This is 1 Cor 5:21 (ESV), ' For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God'.
'Might become' is an accurate subjunctive mood translation. Note the word 'become'. It's a becoming process.
However, there is a subtle difference that can be associated with the subjunctive mood: 'It is quite probable that the future indicative is just a variation of the aorist subjunctive' (Robertson 1934 :924). So, 'will become' is a variation of the grammar and is an acceptable translation, as long as we understand that it is not a definite of what will happen.
The subjunctive mood always refers to the future. 'The subjunctive differs from the future indicative in stating what is thought likely to occur, not positively what will occur' (Thompson in Robertson 1934:925)
Oz
Works consulted
Robertson, A T 1934. A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research. Nashville, Tennessee: Broadman Press.
Thanks for your input Oz.
Maybe you can quote some scriptures and from the words of scripture, please teach us the doctrine on imputed righteousness.
Please make sure that you reconciled the scriptures concerning the righteousness of faith as well as the principle of righteousness that I gave.
If we are all to discuss and study a doctrine then please quote the actual scripture and together we can discern what the Holy Spirit has inspired the writers to teach us.
Thanks JLB
OK now. Are we defining the English translation or the Greek?
In all these cases the nature of imputation is the same ( Romans 5:12-19 ; Compare Philemon 1:18 Philemon 1:19 ) [Easton's Bible Dictionary 3rd ed, courtesy Bible Study Tools).
Sorry, that doesn't impress me.I read and teach NT Greek and have a PhD in NT. I defined the Greek grammar using the language of this forum - English.