Are you familiar with exegesis?
I know what it means.
Do you understand this?
Matthew 25:46 (RSV)
46 And they will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Are you familiar with exegesis?
I know what it means.
Do you understand this?
Matthew 25:46 (RSV)
46 And they will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
To get around the problem of the English Bibles translating Greek words into "eternal," "forever," and forevermore" when describing fire (Matt. 18:8) or torment (Rev. 20:10), we should always go to the Greek. The Greek word that is translated into eternal is greek aionion". It comes from the Greek root "aion" meaning "age." This fact combined with the various uses of Greek words derived from the root "aion" is to show that "aionion" does not always mean "eternal" but can refer to a finite period of time.
Why do I get the feeling that the purpose of this is to comfort the wicked? Instead of warning them you tell them that the punishment won't be forever. They will never have to serve God. They hate God and his way anyway, so the godless will be happy to hear that.
I know what it means.
Do you understand this?
Matthew 25:46 (RSV)
46 And they will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
Why do I get the feeling that the purpose of this is to comfort the wicked? Instead of warning them you tell them that the punishment won't be forever. They will never have to serve God. They hate God and his way anyway, so the godless will be happy to hear that.
They are punished, they die.
Their punishment is the second death!
The second death is to be tormented day and night forever and ever in the lake of fire!
The person does not cease to exist in the first death.
The person does not cease to exist in the second death!
The second death is being cast into the lake of fire.
14 Then Death and Hades were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. 15 And anyone not found written in the Book of Life was cast into the lake of fire. Revelation 20:14-15
JLB
Look at the words you wrote, "Second Death". In order for something to be the second it has to be like the first otherwise it's not the second.
You're terms are mutually exclusive. Destruction is to bring to an end.
If destruction meant bring to and end then then why the phrase everlasting destruction.
If interrogators set out to extract information from a terrorist they use various methods of torture, in order to torment the subject to weaken his will.
One method is sleep deprivation together with loud music and LSD in order to destroy their mind and will and bring confusion until they are weaken by exhaustion and will answer the questions and give up information.
The human mind and will is not destroyed so that it ceases to exist, but rather destroyed to the point of submission.
Furthermore there are people in a mental institution whose minds are destroyed and can not hold a coherent thought or conversation, but rather babble on incoherently making no sense.
Their mind is destroyed but still functions in a useless way.
If frightened they still scream and react, by possibly crying.
Their mind is destroyed.
This is just one use of the word destroy as applied to a non-physical substance called the mind.
The brain is physical, the mind is spiritual.
JLB
Those are your words with your definition.
The rich man DIED and was buried. In hell he was in torment.
His body was buried.
He [his spirit man] was in torment.
Body was asleep.
Soul/spirit was in torment.
JLB
No they're not. Dictionalry
To get around the problem of the English Bibles translating Greek words into "eternal," "forever," and forevermore" when describing fire (Matt. 18:8) or torment (Rev. 20:10), we should always go to the Greek. The Greek word that is translated into eternal is greek aionion". It comes from the Greek root "aion" meaning "age." This fact combined with the various uses of Greek words derived from the root "aion" is to show that "aionion" does not always mean "eternal" but can refer to a finite period of time.
Why do I get the feeling that the purpose of this is to comfort the wicked? Instead of warning them you tell them that the punishment won't be forever. They will never have to serve God. They hate God and his way anyway, so the godless will be happy to hear that.
So which part of the bible do we believe to be true?
But in this punishment the spirit can not escape the lake of fire and return to God.
But in this punishment the spirit can not escape the lake of fire and return to God.
No, the purpose is to understand Hebrew and Greek. We can better interpret scripture this way.
Hebrew and Greek.
Rev 20:10 does not mean for ever and ever. Go to the Greek translations. English translations added for ever and ever.
God used finite language for finite minds, and that's what human beings are.
Does Gen 1:1 go beyond the finite, no. He says in the beginning creation began. God only allows what he wants us to know.