No, if the NWT used the Greek manuscripts, which it had to, then these two verses use
ho Theos.
Here are a couple of previous points which you didn't address:
Let's look at a few passages from the ESV and compare them with the NWT. From the ESV:
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and
one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.
Col 1:16 For
by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together.
Now the NWT:
Joh 1:3 All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence.
1 Cor 8:6 there is actually to us one God,d the Father, from whom all things are and we for him; and there is
one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are and we through him.
Col 1:16 because by means of him
all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities.
All other things have been created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 Also, he is before
all other things, and by means of him
all other things were made to exist,
Don't you find it interesting that the NWT agrees with the ESV in
John 1:3 and
1 Cor 8:6 but then suddenly contradicts itself in
Col 1:16-17, where "other" was added into the text. Why do you think the NWT contradicts itself? Why do you think "other" was added to
Col 1:16-17, especially since "other" doesn't appear in the Greek manuscripts?
But, more than that, even using the NWT in
John 1:3, we see that "apart from him not even one thing came into existence." The
only logical conclusion then, is that the Word
cannot be something that came into existence. Notice that this contradicts the NWT in
John 1:1, since the Word is eternal and, therefore, cannot be "a god." Only God is eternal. Of course, as I have previously pointed out, the NT writers were strict monotheists, so from that alone we know it cannot be "a god."
Please address these points: 1) the application of
ho Theos to Jesus by the NWT, 2) the insertion of "other" in Col 1:16-17 in the NWT which contradicts John 1:3 and 1 Cor 8:6 in the NWT, and 3) how, if Jesus is a created being, if he came into existence, "all things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence," as the NWT states. You can't have it both ways--
either Jesus came into existence and John is wrong, and the NWT is wrong,
or John is right and Jesus never came into existence because he has always existed.