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How to walk by the spirit.

Jesus Christ is God. From John 1:1-5 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life, and the life was the light of men. The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it."

Further from John 1:14 "And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.

I am no scholar, minister or teacher. I am only a faithful in Christ and for many years just study the bible and worship on my own. I seek no teacher and seek to teach no one. I just follow Christ.

Also, please don't throw the expert claim at me. That right there tells me you are no bible expert. Just so that you know regardless between a bible expert and John, I would pick John every time as a source of truth.

FYI, I know a lot about the delusions that Satan throws at us. Only through God's intervention I was saved. And the delusions thrown at us can have very sophisticated patterns webbed into a platform of reasoning that attracts the shiniest intellects who like flies get caught in a deadly spiritual trap. It's all smoke and mirrors at the end with Satan.

With much love! Follower of Christ
I don't know what "throw the expert claim at me" means. I'm simply telling the truth. I am one of the most knowledgeable guys on the planet concerning the subject of the resurrected Christ Jesus. I don't need to read John 1:1 and I don't need to study more or read the book of Mark. I have already done that probably long before many of you were born. Now you can delete my post for telling the truth because I know I was not rude to any of you. That's fine... because Jesus Christ is still not God.
 
I believe we received the spirit of Christ. What do you believe? That we received water?
After I finally quit sinning, (repented of sin), and was water baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of my past sins, I received the gift of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 2:38)
That gift is also known as the seal of the inheritance, and the Comforter.
The giving of that gift is also called the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
A few days later, I was also given the gift of tongues.
 
Jesus was talking to his Jewish Apostles and the Christians.
Of course, but how does that address what I posted?

"Since Jesus commanded believers to be baptized and so that is what the Apostles and early church did, doesn't that suggest that it really does mean something to God? Water baptism doesn't save, but it is commanded by Jesus himself. Jesus also said that those who love him will keep his commandments (John 14:15, 21) and that those who keep his commandments will abide in his love (John 15:10). Hence why John mentions it six times in his first epistle and once in the second one."

Jesus did not tell his Apostles to baptize Christians with water. There's no water in the verse. I know you assume it's there, but it's not. Jesus was telling his Apostles to baptize in the name of Jesus Christ. Not water.
There is nothing about what type of baptism in the verse, so it is fallaciously begging they question to argue that it isn't about water. It is a non-sequitur to argue that "Jesus was telling his Apostles to baptize in the name of Jesus Christ. Not water." Baptizing in the name of Jesus doesn't preclude the use of water.

Again, baptizing in water is exactly what we see Jesus's disciples doing in the NT, what we see elsewhere in the NT, and what we see in the Didache. There is simply no reason to not believe that Jesus wasn't speaking about water in Matt. 28:19. It is very telling that you completely ignored all the biblical passages and supporting arguments in my post.
 
It's very common anywhere to consider yourself part of the family if you say someone is your father. In governments it means you are a prince and share authority. Or in a family business it would mean you share the profits and management.
How does this address anything I said in my post? Is there a reason you completely ignored all the passages and supporting arguments I gave?

Jesus never said he was God nor the Jews.
Yes, he did, and so did the Jews. It was all in my post which you ignored.

They said he said God was his father. And then their custom meant that Jesus was part of God's family.
That's a fairly naive view for someone who claims to be an expert of what it meant to be the son of a certain man. A son was identified by his father, was he not? This is exactly why the Jews claimed that Jesus's claim to be the Son of God was to make himself equal to God. Of course, Jesus did actually claim to be God, explicitly, but mostly implicitly.
 
There was no Grace during the Law administration and there's no Law in the Grace administration.
Reference Al overview -Willard

"According to Dallas Willard's teachings, yes, grace was present under the OLd Covenant, even though it might not have been as explicitly understood or experienced as in the NEw Testament; he emphasized that grace is God's active work in people 's lives, present throughout the Bible, not just conceptually limited to the New Testament time/ era where Jesus'sacrifice is central."

"Dallas Willard pointed to stories in the Old Testament where Godd showed compassion and mercy to people like the Israelites and David, showing that grace was present even before the coming of Jesus."
 
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There was no Grace during the Law administration and there's no Law in the Grace administration.
Help me out here , I have a couple of questions .

Didn't Jesus have some commandments he gave to us ?

Where are the laws at now during the Grace Administration ?
 
Reference Al overview -Willard

"According to Dallas Willard's teachings, yes, grace was present under the OLd Covenant, even though it might not have been as explicitly understood or experienced as in the NEw Testament; he emphasized that grace is God's active work in people 's lives, present throughout the Bible, not just conceptually limited to the New Testament time/ era where Jesus'sacrifice is central."

"Dallas Willard pointed to stories in the Old Testament where Godd showed compassion and mercy to people like the Israelites and David, showing that grace was present even before the coming of Jesus."
Grace was available since Gen 6:8..."But Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord."
 
Help me out here , I have a couple of questions .

Didn't Jesus have some commandments he gave to us ?

Where are the laws at now during the Grace Administration ?
Let me know if this helps...

The living resurrected Christ Jesus has become the one great subject that occupies the Word of God that the church belongs to. It's this Christ Jesus that is the key to the divine revelation in the Word of God for this our Grace administration. The contents of the New Testament must be understood in reference to Christ Jesus our Lord because the doctrine and nature of God for this our Grace administration are centered in His Christ.
 
The law still has to be fullfilled...and to add to that there still is the law of Christ..etc
I don't see a law of Christ for the Christian. Fulfilling any law would be concerning Israel. The living resurrected Christ Jesus has become the one great subject that occupies the Word of God that the church belongs to. It's this Christ Jesus that is the key to the divine revelation in the Word of God for this our Grace administration. The contents of the New Testament must be understood in reference to Christ Jesus our Lord because the doctrine and nature of God for this our Grace administration are centered in His Christ.
 
Reference Al overview -Willard

"According to Dallas Willard's teachings, yes, grace was present under the OLd Covenant, even though it might not have been as explicitly understood or experienced as in the NEw Testament; he emphasized that grace is God's active work in people 's lives, present throughout the Bible, not just conceptually limited to the New Testament time/ era where Jesus'sacrifice is central."

"Dallas Willard pointed to stories in the Old Testament where Godd showed compassion and mercy to people like the Israelites and David, showing that grace was present even before the coming of Jesus."
Nobody is saying God did not show grace to folks in the Old Testament. What we are saying is the Old Testament was under the Law and not part of the new covenant.
 
How does this address anything I said in my post? Is there a reason you completely ignored all the passages and supporting arguments I gave?


Yes, he did, and so did the Jews. It was all in my post which you ignored.


That's a fairly naive view for someone who claims to be an expert of what it meant to be the son of a certain man. A son was identified by his father, was he not? This is exactly why the Jews claimed that Jesus's claim to be the Son of God was to make himself equal to God. Of course, Jesus did actually claim to be God, explicitly, but mostly implicitly.
I don't agree with your view of Jesus Christ. You think he's God and I do not. If you say I'm being naive and completely ignoring you. Then that's okay because you speak the Word of God. If I tell you that you are naive and have ignored my post by telling me I'm wrong. Then that's my opinion which can then be deleted for being unloving.
 
Of course, but how does that address what I posted?

"Since Jesus commanded believers to be baptized and so that is what the Apostles and early church did, doesn't that suggest that it really does mean something to God? Water baptism doesn't save, but it is commanded by Jesus himself. Jesus also said that those who love him will keep his commandments (John 14:15, 21) and that those who keep his commandments will abide in his love (John 15:10). Hence why John mentions it six times in his first epistle and once in the second one."


There is nothing about what type of baptism in the verse, so it is fallaciously begging they question to argue that it isn't about water. It is a non-sequitur to argue that "Jesus was telling his Apostles to baptize in the name of Jesus Christ. Not water." Baptizing in the name of Jesus doesn't preclude the use of water.

Again, baptizing in water is exactly what we see Jesus's disciples doing in the NT, what we see elsewhere in the NT, and what we see in the Didache. There is simply no reason to not believe that Jesus wasn't speaking about water in Matt. 28:19. It is very telling that you completely ignored all the biblical passages and supporting arguments in my post.
Looks like a typo when I said "Jesus was talking to his Jewish Apostles and the Christians."

I meant to write...

"Jesus was talking to his Jewish Apostles and not the Christians."

If you would enjoy conversing with me. Then let's deal with one verse at a time. I cannot respond to 18 different verses in each post from one person.
 
After I finally quit sinning, (repented of sin), and was water baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of my past sins, I received the gift of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 2:38)
That gift is also known as the seal of the inheritance, and the Comforter.
The giving of that gift is also called the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
A few days later, I was also given the gift of tongues.
Everyone I know who gets born again speaks in tongues. I believe it's called the manifestations of the spirit.
 
Everyone I know who gets born again speaks in tongues. I believe it's called the manifestations of the spirit.
Any evidence over the last 100 years when a born again believer starts speaking in a known language foreign to them prior to the regeneration? For example, someone who has never spoken ancient Greek prior to being born again starts speaking it perfectly once regenerated?

Personally, I wish God gave me the ability to speak ancient Greek after being regenerated. That did not happen.

This question is not meant to downplay speaking in tongues. Every now and often I get the urge to break into a pattern of sound and utterances which was an unknown phenomenon to me prior to regeneration but then I cool down.

From 1 Peter 5:8 "Be sober-minded; be watchful. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour." Speaking in tongues is associated with a heightened excited psychological state and one can never be sure that opens the door to a Satanic attack.

Lastly, and most importantly speaking in tongues can be a social equilibrium too in a church setting where some try to appear regenerated by just babbling incoherently maybe even out of peer pressure. I say this for the true indicator of the Holy Spirit in a faithful in Christ are the fruits produced and Paul has told us what they are.
 
Nobody is saying God did not show grace to folks in the Old Testament. What we are saying is the Old Testament was under the Law and not part of the new covenant.
But you throw baptism under the Law..Yet there were many baptisms.

Is making a committment to follow Christ through water baptism under the Law?
I don't know about what you and your people say... why can't some things belong in both the old and new.

Love for example is not a new command
 
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I don't see a law of Christ for the Christian. Fulfilling any law would be concerning Israel.
And who is Israel- the seed that comes from Jacob..from Abraham is Christ. The seed not meaning many but Jesus. One upholds the Law through faith in Christ.
Its about the inside being clean so that the outside and deeds are done from a pure heart. Love fulfills the law.

The key is man needs a new heart by His Spirit, if the inside is clean then the outside will be as well.
The living resurrected Christ Jesus has become the one great subject that occupies the Word of God that the church belongs to. It's this Christ Jesus that is the key to the divine revelation in the Word of God for this our Grace administration. The contents of the New Testament must be understood in reference to Christ Jesus our Lord because the doctrine and nature of God for this our Grace administration are centered in His Christ
Everything has to be view in context
Being under the Law does not mean there is no law.

Yes there is the Law of Christ...and who is Israel?
 
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Let me know if this helps...

The living resurrected Christ Jesus has become the one great subject that occupies the Word of God that the church belongs to. It's this Christ Jesus that is the key to the divine revelation in the Word of God for this our Grace administration. The contents of the New Testament must be understood in reference to Christ Jesus our Lord because the doctrine and nature of God for this our Grace administration are centered in His Christ.
No help at all , I don't see an answer in your post . Lets try again .
There was no Grace during the Law administration and there's no Law in the Grace administration.
I can not find any biblical support for " there's no Law in the Grace Admin " so you need to come up with some support .
8. As this forum is for serious theological discussion, relevant verses from the Bible and/or other supporting documentation must be given to support one's assertions, especially when asked for by others.


I wanted you to maybe look in the bible and see if you can find the answers for me to these questions . That way we can see that the law in some fashion was still around and is now still with us . You are a student of the bible , the answers are in there I believe . My questions again .

Didn't Jesus have some commandments he gave to us ?

Where are the laws at now during the Grace Administration ?

Thanks for your reply .
 
I don't agree with your view of Jesus Christ. You think he's God and I do not.
The historical, orthodox position of Christianity is that Jesus is God in human flesh, because this is what Scripture states.

If you say I'm being naive and completely ignoring you. Then that's okay because you speak the Word of God.
Well, you did completely ignore everything I posted. I may as well have posted my grocery list. There was no attempt to engage any biblical text nor any argument. My comment about being "fairly naive" was because you claim to be a biblical scholar, one of the best on the person of Jesus, if I remember correctly, so you really should know that your claim--"They said he said God was his father. And then their custom meant that Jesus was part of God's family."--simply isn't at all accurate. To be the Son of God is a much stronger claim, as was being a son of a particular father. I was just meaning that it seems to be a fairly uninformed position for someone who claims to be a biblical scholar.

What I say about Scripture is my simply opinion about what I believe it is saying, based on study. I believe my view is correct just as you believe your view is correct.

If I tell you that you are naive and have ignored my post by telling me I'm wrong. Then that's my opinion which can then be deleted for being unloving.
No, I don't do that. Staff does not do that.

Looks like a typo when I said "Jesus was talking to his Jewish Apostles and the Christians."

I meant to write...

"Jesus was talking to his Jewish Apostles and not the Christians."
Fair enough, but there were no Christians and those same apostles became the first Christians. They baptized people with water during Jesus's ministry and then at the end of his ministry, Jesus commands them to go make more disciples and baptize them. There is nothing to suggest that it isn't without water, which is why we see it continue in the NT with water.

If you would enjoy conversing with me. Then let's deal with one verse at a time. I cannot respond to 18 different verses in each post from one person.
We can try, but if we're going to discuss the deity of Jesus, we cannot limit it to one verse at a time. Well, about almost any topic we shouldn't limit it to one verse at a time since context really, really matters. With Jesus's deity, there is just so much that has to be taken into account.
 
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