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Matthew24:34
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Ed the Ned said:I am still trying to understand both points, similar to evolution when it was decided that evolution was right, people went back to prove it. There was total belief in the theory The theory was created before the evidence. arn't we doing the same thing here. If we have decided that the second coming happened in 70AD, we are now aligning history to our beliefs. The similar argument lies with the futurist. Why dont we just check the Bible first without any belief structure or theory in place and then analize and see if anything matches it. If Revelations was written before 70AD then could someone please explain to me as a 1st century person what they should have looked out for. I would like to put myself in their shoes in their time. Did the letters recieve the first Churches and the rest of revelation? If so what was there response to it as many lived outside the walls of Jerusalem? Was their an historian that wrote anything about it? Did the gentiles have bibles to read from and to take heed as to what was going to happen? Were the gospels in print so that the people of Jerusalem could look out for the signs? Or was it the elect disciples that through word of mouth preached the Gospel? If the gospel was known throughout the world did the disciples travel around the globe in a short period of time? Why arn't there relects or notes of these visits on other continents? In China there are symbols of Noahs Ark, yet nothing of first century Christianity, Why? These are genuine questions that I feel the average Christian needs answered in order to make a judgement on end time prophecy. I apologise there are so many preterest questions, but there just seem to be!
I pray to God that he may lead me in the right direction that will lead to the fullfillment of his word.
Ed the Ned: As a full preterist, I appreciate your questions. I wonder, however, since you plainly indicted futurists as well, why you have no specific questions for them? For example, why does Jesus always use the expression "this generation" to mean His contemporaries (20 times!) in every passage except in those found in His Olivet Discourse--according to futurists? What precedent do futurists have for changing the meaning?
Why do futurists consistently ignore or redefine the numerous plain time indicators in the NT? Why does near mean far and why does soon mean later--much later--to them? Why do they make "we" in the NT mean "us?" Why do they read "you" to mean us? Why do they so often ignore the context and audience relevance of NT passages?
Ed the Ned, it would help if you would address some specific Bible passage or verse that you would like explained. I'm not quite sure what you are asking. Thanks!
Sincerely, Matthew24:34