Carry_Your_Name
Member
The only problem was that they were being divisive based on their contentions.
What those were is not spelled out, with the exception of whom they were "of".
Yes, that's a form of celebrity worship and Nicolaitanism, following the teacher's interpretation of the bible instead of studying it themselves, that's still the status quo in most churches where the congregation doesn't study, discuss or even just bother to read the bible, all of their theological knowledge comes from their pastor.Paul used that as a worst case scenario, in a "church" that was being divisive according to who had taught them the doctrines of Christ.
Yep, the very worst scenario.
But not one that had actually occurred.
The problem was division.
You don't know whether this was Paul's sarcasm or his disapproval of a real scenario where some of them did claim they were baptized in the baptizer's name. You've assumed that's just a hypothetical scenario, but Paul had responded to many pressing issues in various churches in his letters, this contention and diviseness is the first on the list.That is not stated in 1 Corinthians.
It is only cited as a worst case scenario of what might happen.
They cited what they experienced.
So? Whether they were baptized in John's name or in anybody's or nobody's name, it doesn't matter. They hadn't received the Holy Spirit until Paul laid hands on them.The 12 at Ephesus answered a question from Paul. (What baptism did you experience ?)
In 1 Cor 1, Paul gave a worst case scenario for division.
Those men were absolutely saved when the Holy Spirit descended upon them. They were not subject to the white throne judgement which is only reserved for the unbelievers.The were not in possession of the gift of the Holy Ghost, until Paul laid hands on them.
Whether or not they were saved would be decided on the day of judgement anyway.
That depends on your understanding of "bathe in water" in Lev. 14.I am not sure the Levitical washings involved "immersion".
Except we're not living in John's days anymore. Any pastor who baptizes is still doing John the Baptist's job, but it is now the blood of Jesus that washes away our sins., Matt. 3:11.John's baptism unto repentance was about salvation, as it is written..."And thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare his ways;
77 To give knowledge of salvation unto his people by the remission of their sins," (Luke 1:76-77)
With..."And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins;" (Luke 3:3)
In John's days, salvation was by the remission of sins.
Isn't it still ?
I mentioned it because you've falsely assumed that water baptism is equal to repentance of sin, thus it's necessary for salvation. That is debunked by those Pharisees who came to get baptized in order to "flee from the coming wrath" (Matt. 3:7). None of them could be saved as long as they were a "brood of vipers".Agreed, but I don't know why you mentioned it.
Paul was converted on the road to Damascus BEFORE he was baptized, not after.I disagree.
It is written..."And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord." (Acts 22:16)
Yes, the topic in question is "is water baptism necessary for salvation", the answer, according to Lord Jesus himself and exemplified in this case in Acts 8, is NO. What's necessary for salvation is natual birth and spiritual birth, water baptism is just a ritual that imitates natural birth. In some cases the descending of the Holy Spirit immediately follows, in other cases not.The Samarians that had their past sins washed away, when Philip baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins.
On that we agree.
But my comment was about rebirth.
"When He had been baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened to Him, and He saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting upon Him. And suddenly a voice came from heaven, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." (Matt. 3:16-17)Please supply the verse saying that.
No, it only proves that correlation is NOT causation, just because one's baptized doesn't mean their sins are remitted, otherwise the holy spirit would've immediately descended upon them and they'd be saved. "Baptism of repentance for the remission of sins" is a misleading phrase.Yep.
The Samarians, (are that also called Samaritans ?), had not all repented of sins first.
The 12 at Ephesus had not been baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins first.
Both provided God with the opportunity to illustrate that the gift of the Holy Ghost could be passed on by truly repentant men.
He baptized the Ethiopean eunuch (Acts 8:38), was the eunuch saved? Did his salvation require Peter to lay hand on him as well?I don't know.
The Lord must have, via the Holy Spirit, relayed to Peter that it could be done that way for new converts.
Faith comes first before obedience, discipline or any work in Christ. You won't obey what you have no faith in, soon or later your willpower is gonna be depleted.It is faith without the works of the Law, like Paul has been saying over and over again in his epistles.
Define "Sola Scriptura" in the context of obeying the doctrines of Christ for salvation ?
It isn't, if one won't quit committing sin.
Repentance from sin comes first.
As long as water baptism doesn't result in repentance from sin, it's not necessary for salvation.He wasn't "saved".
He wasn't even converted.
Yes, but it has been erroneously quoted to justify water baptism salvation.John 3:4-6 has nothing to so with water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.
Except that of baptism being the vehicle to facilitate the rebirth.
Agree. Water baptism is a ritual to signify that.Paul writes in Rom 6, that as we are killed and buried with Christ, we are also raised with Him to walk in newness of life.
That is how we are reborn.