But identifying with them is a problem.
The only problem was that they were being divisive based on their contentions.
What those were is not spelled out, with the exception of whom they were "of".
Paul criticized the Corinthian church that they would've claimed to be baptized in Paul's name if Paul had baptized them,
Paul used that as a worst case scenario, in a "church" that was being divisive according to who had taught them the doctrines of Christ.
I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, lest anyone should say that I had baptized in my own name. (1 Cor. 1:14-15)
Yep, the very worst scenario.
But not one that had actually occurred.
The problem was division.
Being baptized in the baptizer's name was a real thing in the Corinthian church,
That is not stated in 1 Corinthians.
It is only cited as a worst case scenario of what might happen.
and since those men in Ephesus credited John the Baptist, they only knew and experienced John's baptism,
They cited what they experienced.
how is that situation any different?
The 12 at Ephesus answered a question from Paul. (What baptism did you experience ?)
In 1 Cor 1, Paul gave a worst case scenario for division.
No, and they were not truly saved until Peter and John's laying on of hands.
The were not in possession of the gift of the Holy Ghost, until Paul laid hands on them.
Whether or not they were saved would be decided on the day of judgement anyway.
Then that was just baptism dating back to the purification ritual in Leviticus.
I am not sure the Levitical washings involved "immersion".
John didn't baptize in anybody's name, right?
Correct.
It's not about salvation.
John's baptism unto repentance
was about salvation, as it is written..."And thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare his ways;
77 To give knowledge of
salvation unto his people by the remission of their sins," (Luke 1:76-77)
With..."And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching
the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins;" (Luke 3:3)
In John's days, salvation was by the remission of sins.
Isn't it still ?
Pharisees came to John the Baptist for baptism, John reproached them.
Agreed, but I don't know why you mentioned it.
With the blood of Christ:
Exactly !
And that blood is applied at out "immersion" into Christ at His death !
The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! (Jn. 1:29)
These are the ones who come out of the great tribulation, and washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb. (Rev. 7:14)
Amen to that !
But they are not interchangeable, water baptism only washes away your dirt.
I disagree.
It is written..."And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord." (Acts 22:16)
Why a different topic? Those Samaritans had been baptized - in Jesus's name, Acts 8:12.
The Samarians that had their past sins washed away, when Philip baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins.
On that we agree.
But my comment was about rebirth.
Water baptism and receiving of the Holy Spirit don't always happen simultaneously.
Agreed
In some cases such as Acts 2, the Holy Spirit immediately descends upon the individual when they emerges from the water,
Please supply the verse saying that.
in others, such as the Samaritans and the Ephesians, they didn't receive the Holy Spirit until an apostle laid hands on them.
Yep.
The Samarians, (are that also called Samaritans ?), had not all repented of sins first.
The 12 at Ephesus had not been baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins first.
Both provided God with the opportunity to illustrate that the gift of the Holy Ghost could be passed on by truly repentant men.
Why can't Philip lay hands on those Samaritans? Other disciples had laid hand on him, why didn't he pass it on to the Samaritans?
I don't know.
The Lord must have, via the Holy Spirit, relayed to Peter that it could be done that way for new converts.
Really? So it's faith plus work or something else now? What about Sola Scriptura?
It is faith without the works of the Law, like Paul has been saying over and over again in his epistles.
Define "Sola Scriptura" in the context of obeying the doctrines of Christ for salvation ?
That's because water baptism alone is not an immediate remission of past sins,
It isn't, if one won't quit committing sin.
Repentance from sin comes first.
otherwise he wouldn't been saved.
He wasn't "saved".
He wasn't even converted.
In the CONTEXT of Jn. 3:4-6, "born of water" is referring to natural birth, not water baptism. Repentance is required for salvation, water baptism is not.
John 3:4-6 has nothing to so with water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.
Except that of baptism being the vehicle to facilitate the rebirth.
Paul writes in Rom 6, that as we are killed and buried with Christ, we are also raised with Him to walk in newness of life.
That is
how we are reborn.