As I have read this a couple of times, and will probably read it a couple more times, I think I agree with it.
Yeah, sorry brightfame52. I reread it and it's virtually incomprehensible - but it sure made a lot of sense while I wrote it (lol).
Let me try again - not sure I will do any better this time though. Anyway, the verse as it stands in the Bible is 1) (below). My contention is that for it to actually mean as interpreted by most people - that Abraham (himself) had faith and that faith brought him righteousness - the verse as written would then be incorrect logically. To be made correct logically per that interpretation, the verse would instead have said 2 (below), not 1 (below). Both very different from each other.
So, in addition to the other whole host of doctrinal reasons we discussed as to why the typical interpretation is wrong, it seems to me that the logic of the verse itself, on its face, will not permit that kind of interpretation to be correctly made.
1) "And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness." (current)
2) "And he believed in the LORD; and he counted righteousness to him because of his belief" (adjusted to the interpretation)
In 2, righteousness is what is imputed to him for his belief. In 1, it is the reverse.
Yikes! Sorry - I refuse to quit!
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