Agreed ... lol ... good one. Now we are arguing each sees our self as the heretic ... lol .. enjoyed that.I pretty sure I’ll end up being the “heretic”.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
Strengthening families through biblical principles.
Focus on the Family addresses the use of biblical principles in parenting and marriage to strengthen the family.
Read daily articles from Focus on the Family in the Marriage and Parenting Resources forum.
Agreed ... lol ... good one. Now we are arguing each sees our self as the heretic ... lol .. enjoyed that.I pretty sure I’ll end up being the “heretic”.
Please let's get back to topic....
IS GOD STILL SOVEREIGN....even though He allows free will.
If we stick to biblical verses, we could all join in since we all know the bible.
Hi Oz,,,
I did see this even before, but let's go through it again because otherwise we're going to lose the meaning of the word IMPUTE.
Definition of impute
transitive verb
1: to lay the responsibility or blame for (something) often falsely or unjustlyThe economic sins imputed to Tito had all been committed to a greater extent by the communist parties of neighbouring countries.— Hugh Seton-Watson
2: to credit or ascribe (something) to a person or a cause : ATTRIBUTE
impute
VERB
If you impute something such as blame or a crime to someone, you say that they are responsible for it or are the cause of it.
[formal]
It is grossly unfair to impute blame to the United Nations. [VERB noun + to]
Synonyms: attribute, assign, ascribe, credit More
So,,,,we suffer from the effects of Adam's sin....
But we are not IMPUTED with his sin.
Adam sinned...not each one of us.
We are only responsible for our own sins,,,,and not anyone else's.
We did not sin as Adam sinned....
Romans 5:14
14Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
Oz,wondering,
My understanding from Scripture is that God's sovereignty means He created all visible and invisible things/persons in the universe. Since He is the owner of everything, He has an absolute right to rule over everything.
This is the teaching of Matt 20:12-15 (NIV) and Rom 9:20-21 (NIV). Eph 1:11 (NIV) confirms that God exercises his authority in the universe.
Oz
This is why JLB likes to stick to scripture.....wondering,
The definition of impute in Scripture is not accurately determined by the Merriam-Webster or any other dictionary.
This verse is critical in understanding imputation: Rom 5:18 (NIV), 'Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people'. The sin of Adam was imputed, charged or reckoned to every member of the human race. It is because of his sin that every member of the human race comes into the world with a depraved nature and under God's condemnation (See Rom 5:12; Eph 2:3).
Here, the Bible teaches we are justified in Christ just as we were condemned in Adam. The fundamental truth is: If the principle is wrong concerning Adam, it must be wrong also concerning Christ.
Oz
Oz,
I'm having a problem with your beliefs.
I'm pretty shocked to tell you the truth.
Needless to say, you're one of the persons I most
respect and agree with on these threads.
I'm 99% sure you agree with me and cannot understand why
language is getting in the way.
Because God is sovereign and has the absolute right and authority
in EVERYTHING,,,does NOT mean He exercises that authority.
God created us with free will.
Do you agree with this?
If yes, the discussion is ended.
God, IN HIS SOVEREIGNTY, decided to give us free will.
If you believe we do NOT have free will, then you'll have to tell
me WHEN it was taken away.
Did God choose to give us free will or not?
God remains sovereign EVEN THOUGH He has given us free will. Libertarian free will.
This is the point of this thread.
My contention is that God is MORE SOVEREIGN because He is NOT AFRAID to give us libertarian free will.,
To the reformed God is made LESS SOVEREIGN because of His fear to give us true free will.
Please reply to the above and I'll get to your next post.
For this discussion, we'll forget what IMPUTE means.
And, BTW, it means the same for Merrian Webster as it does for theologians....
IMPUTE has a specific meaning and it refers to blame and responsibility...
impute means to impute.
Are WE,,,each one of us individually, RESPONSIBLE for Adam's sin?
Are WE... each one of us individually TO BLAME for Adam's sin?
This is what this conversation is about.
But let's go to the verse YOU posted above:
Romans 5:18 and we'll us the NIV which you picked:
Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people.
Where, in the above verse, does it state that we are all TO BLAME and ARE RESPONSIBLE for Adam's sin??
OR
Is it speaking about THE RESULT of Adam's siin?
Oz,
I'm having a problem with your beliefs.
I'm pretty shocked to tell you the truth.
Needless to say, you're one of the persons I most
respect and agree with on these threads.
I'm 99% sure you agree with me and cannot understand why
language is getting in the way.
Because God is sovereign and has the absolute right and authority
in EVERYTHING,,,does NOT mean He exercises that authority.
God created us with free will.
Do you agree with this?
If yes, the discussion is ended.
God, IN HIS SOVEREIGNTY, decided to give us free will.
If you believe we do NOT have free will, then you'll have to tell
me WHEN it was taken away.
Did God choose to give us free will or not?
God remains sovereign EVEN THOUGH He has given us free will. Libertarian free will.
This is the point of this thread.
My contention is that God is MORE SOVEREIGN because He is NOT AFRAID to give us libertarian free will.,
To the reformed God is made LESS SOVEREIGN because of His fear to give us true free will.
Please reply to the above and I'll get to your next post.
This is a contradiction... that the more God doesn't control things, the more powerful his rule.My contention is that God is MORE SOVEREIGN because He is NOT AFRAID to give us libertarian free will.,
Arminianism denies that salvation is by grace alone with its synergistic teaching concerning the sovereignty of the human will; that God’s will is not free in this matter.
I know you agree with me....wondering,
Which of my beliefs are you having problems with. Most of what you've said here I agree with.
Oz
Fred,If his knowledge did depend upon the things, then the existence of things did precede God's knowledge of them: to say that they are the cause of God's knowledge, is to say that God was not the cause of their being; and if he did create them, it was effected by a blind and ignorant power; he created he knew not what, till he had produced it.
If man can choose one thing or another then God must change his purpose to correspond with that act or volition. To this it may be replied that we know that such cannot be the case, for this would take away the independence of God. It would make his volitions dependent upon those of man. Romans 11:34-35 “For who hath known the mind of the Lord? Or who hath been his counselor? Or who hath first given to Him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?” The force of this is, it is impossible to bring the Almighty under obligations to the creature; God gains nothing from us. Job 22:2 “Can a vigorous man be of use to God, Or a wise man be useful to himself? 3 “Is it any pleasure or joy to the Almighty that you are righteous? Or is it of benefit to Him that you make your ways perfect?
One of the greatest misconceptions about biblical truth is the idea that God is somehow obligated to be equally merciful to everyone. If He were obligated to be merciful, then it would be justice, not mercy; it would be what He must do if He is righteous. The whole point of mercy is that it is free and voluntary. God is so loving that He gives mercy far beyond anything we could ever hope or imagine.
Arminianism denies the absolute power and effectualness of Christ's death on the cross by teaching that “Christ died for all” it teaches that His death, in and of itself, actually saves no one; that His death was in vain for many.
1 Chronicles 29:14 "Who am I, and what is my people, that we should be able to offer so willingly after this sort? for all things come of thee, and of thine own have we given thee". Omnipotence means that God can do all things consistent with His nature and purpose. “Free will” implies God limited himself to unpredictable free acts of man. Thus, either God is not omnipotent or He has no purpose in matter pertaining to the salvation of individuals. To argue that man is a free moral agent and the determiner of his own destiny, and that therefore he has the power to checkmate his Maker, is to strip God of the attribute of Omnipotence.
edit for space.....
It is part of wisdom to proceed in every undertaking according to a plan. The greater the undertaking, the more needful a plan. Wisdom, moreover, shows itself in a careful provision for all possible circumstances and emergencies that can arise in the execution of its plan. It belongs to infinite wisdom, therefore, not only to have a plan, but to embrace all, even the minutest details, in the plan of the universe. Given that God has a plan (Acts 15:18; Psalm 33:11), which is all-inclusive (Ephesians 1:11) and because of God’s nature the plan must be the “best plan” … how is it possible to have the “best plan” when it is dependent upon the will of men who by nature are sinful. Why would an all knowing, perfect, rational God leave any part of His plan to evil, irrational beings?
Omnisapience (God is all wise) … how can the supposed “free will” of man with all it ancillary consequences be of superior wisdom to the decisions of God?
1 Corinthians 4:7 "Who maketh thee to differ from another? And what hast thou that thou didst not receive? Now if thou didst receive it, why dost thou glory, as if thou hadst not received it?". God had given them everything they had; everything includes faith for those elect
We may have to agree to disagree, so this is my last try.wondering,
Based on Rom 5:18, all people are condemned in Adam, i.e. they receive a sin nature/original sin from him.
If that is not possible, the parallel act is not possible, i.e. one act of righteousness (the cross) by Jesus Christ.
"one trespass [by Adam] resulted in condemnation for all people" The doctrine of original sin or sin nature is taught in this verse. It is serious if we want to make this statement only to mean 'the RESULT of Adam's sin' because then 'one act of righteousness' by Jesus did not mean that salvation is available to all but only the RESULT of what Jesus' did.
Correct!Biblically, the imputation of sin to all people is parallel to the imputation of Christ's righteousness to all who believe.
The language of imputation is critical to understand because to impute means to think of something as belonging to someone and so it belongs to that person. God 'thinks of'/imputes Adam's sin as belonging to the entire human race.
Right.However, because of justification, God thinks of Christ's righteousness as belonging to those who believe. Because of that, God declares Christ's righteousness belongs to the believer.
I don't think it's unfair and the above is not at all what I'm speaking to.It's not unusual to meet evangelical Christians who protest over the teaching that they are counted guilty before God because of Adam's sin. Some consider this is unfair. How should I respond?
- For those who protest, they know they have committed many actual sins. They are guilty because God because of these. See Rom 2:6 (NIV); Col 3:25.
- If it is unfair for people to be represented by Adam, it also is unfair to be represented by Christ and to have his righteousness imputed to them. That's exactly Paul's argument in Rom 5:12-21 (NIV). The reasoning is simple: Adam was our first representative and he sinned, thus making all people guilty. However, Christ is the representative for all who believe in him.
Oz
By SOVEREIGN the reformed mean CONTROL.wondering,
Where is your biblical evidence that God is MORE sovereign because He gave us free will?
Also, please provide a couple examples from Reformed theologians or exegetes who claim "God is made LESS SOVEREIGN because of His fear to give us true free will".
In your statements about God being MORE or LESS sovereign, both you and the Reformed are making interpretations. I'm not reading any reasoning from the Scriptures.
Oz
If his knowledge did depend upon the things, then the existence of things did precede God's knowledge of them: to say that they are the cause of God's knowledge, is to say that God was not the cause of their being; and if he did create them, it was effected by a blind and ignorant power; he created he knew not what, till he had produced it.
If man can choose one thing or another then God must change his purpose to correspond with that act or volition. To this it may be replied that we know that such cannot be the case, for this would take away the independence of God. It would make his volitions dependent upon those of man. Romans 11:34-35 “For who hath known the mind of the Lord? Or who hath been his counselor? Or who hath first given to Him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?” The force of this is, it is impossible to bring the Almighty under obligations to the creature; God gains nothing from us. Job 22:2 “Can a vigorous man be of use to God, Or a wise man be useful to himself? 3 “Is it any pleasure or joy to the Almighty that you are righteous? Or is it of benefit to Him that you make your ways perfect?
One of the greatest misconceptions about biblical truth is the idea that God is somehow obligated to be equally merciful to everyone. If He were obligated to be merciful, then it would be justice, not mercy; it would be what He must do if He is righteous. The whole point of mercy is that it is free and voluntary. God is so loving that He gives mercy far beyond anything we could ever hope or imagine.
Arminianism denies the absolute power and effectualness of Christ's death on the cross by teaching that “Christ died for all” it teaches that His death, in and of itself, actually saves no one; that His death was in vain for many.
1 Chronicles 29:14 "Who am I, and what is my people, that we should be able to offer so willingly after this sort? for all things come of thee, and of thine own have we given thee". Omnipotence means that God can do all things consistent with His nature and purpose. “Free will” implies God limited himself to unpredictable free acts of man. Thus, either God is not omnipotent or He has no purpose in matter pertaining to the salvation of individuals. To argue that man is a free moral agent and the determiner of his own destiny, and that therefore he has the power to checkmate his Maker, is to strip God of the attribute of Omnipotence.
How can God know the future if it is determined by the “will” of man? Does an all knowing God learn by looking into the future as has been suggested by Arminians who support the idea of events being determined by “will” of man? In other words, the concept of man’s “free will” is also opposed to his perfection, for that perfection forbids the idea of increase or addition from without; yet, according to the “free will” view, his knowledge increased by the decisions of his creatures.
“Beauty (perfection)“ means that God has everything desirable. It is not possible to have that which would be most desired if it is not determined by God. Example: How could it be most desired if the people that make up the “bride of Christ” is derived by the “free will” of men.
God’s liberty of action (sovereignty) would be limited by the assumed powers and prerogatives of man’s “free will”.
Does it not seem to represent the blessed God, as a Being of vast understanding, as well as power, and efficiency, but still to leave him without a Will to choose among all the objects within his view? In short, it seems to make the blessed God a sort of Almighty Minister of Fate, under its universal and supreme influence; as it was the professed sentiment of some of the ancients, that Fate was above the gods.
Election applies to God’s sovereign purpose for individuals and nations. The alternative—that human volition is equal to or is, in some meaningful sense, greater than the divine will … that when God created human beings with volitional freedom He accordingly divested Himself of absolute sovereignty.
Arminianism denies the sovereignty of God in salvation. If God's will is steadily and surely determined in everything by supreme wisdom, then it is in everything necessarily determined to that which is most wise. And, certainly, it would be a disadvantage and indignity, to be otherwise. For if the Divine Will was not necessarily determined to what in every case is wisest and best, it must be subject to some degree of undesigning contingence; and so in the same degree liable to evil. To suppose the Divine Will liable to be carried hither and thither at random, by the uncertain wind of blind contingence, which is guided by no wisdom, no motive, no intelligent dictate whatsoever, (if any such thing were possible,) would certainly argue a great degree of imperfection and meanness, infinitely unworthy of the Deity.
God’s love must he traced back to His sovereignty or, otherwise, He would love by rule; and if He loved by rule, then is He under a law of love, and if He is under a law of love then is He not supreme, but is Himself ruled by law.
What a GREAT post!What does Sovereignty mean to you?
Word definition is important to understand what a person means.
Please consider this scripture in this discussion topic.
The heaven, even the heavens, are the LORD’s;
But the earth He has given to the children of men.
Psalm 116:15
If God has given the earth to men, to rule and have dominion over, then we should consider that God has given men the ability to choose, to make decisions, to govern the earth.
IOW God being Sovereign has granted man to rule as a ruler, which by definition means man is a sovereign (ruler) as well.
This is the biblical definition of Sovereign.
which He will manifest in His own time, He who is the blessed and only Potentate (Sovereign), the King of kings and Lord of lords, 1 Timothy 6:15
God is a Potentate, a Sovereign a ruler; more specifically He is the Lord of lords and King of kings.
He is the Ruler of rulers.
JLB
... Hey, the first few times Oz posted I thought he might be reformed. I am sure he and I agree on more that we disagree.but when you write out your thoughts, you sometimes sound very reformed.
Yes. And I'm aware of this.... Hey, the first few times Oz posted I thought he might be reformed. I am sure he and I agree on more that we disagree.
Oz .... you are welcome anytime to join us on 'the dark (reformed)' side (I better specific that the Dark Side is reference to "Star Wars")
Fred,... Hey, the first few times Oz posted I thought he might be reformed. I am sure he and I agree on more that we disagree.
Oz .... you are welcome anytime to join us on 'the dark (reformed)' side (I better specific that the Dark Side is reference to "Star Wars")