dadof10
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- Nov 5, 2006
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BobRyan said:In 1Thess 2 Paul admits that the church at Corinth accepted his teaching "For what it is - the Word of God".
Yes. They accepted their oral teaching "And we also thank God constantly for this, that when you received the word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men but as what it really is, the word of God, which is at work in you believers."
He is equating oral teaching with the word of God, not Scripture. That said....
Peter says that some men distort the words of Paul "along with the rest of scripture" indicating that he knew Paul's letters were to be accepted as scripture.
Yes they were, as were the Gospel of Barnabas, the Acts of John and the Apocolypse of the Virgin, in certain communities at certain times. They were right about some, wrong about others because the inspiration of books and letters is not immediately apparent.
I think we all agree that the church was actively engaged in reading Paul and Peter and John and Luke during the first century -- they did not wait for someone to come along 200 years later and say "OK start reading Paul".
I agree. But, again, not all communities considered them inspired.
In fact the church councils in later centuries were merely clarifying what was already established practice from the 1st century lest that practice should be confused and clouded by customs and practices that were arising "new" over the centuries.
I don't know what you mean by "customs and practices that were arising "new" over the centuries". Church councils settled on a single canon around 400 AD due to disputes over the inspiation of certain books. The fact that they NEEDED a council to make this decision speaks to the fact that they weren't "merely clarifying" the list of already recognized books and letters.