Ok, let me clarify.
Paul plainly offered that 'he spoke tongues MORE than them all'. He also stated that IN THE CHURCH he had rather speak FIVE words with understanding than 10,000 in an UNKNOWN tongue. That speaking WITHOUT understanding was like TALKING TO THE AIR.
Now, with these things in mind, was Paul refering to the 'same tongues'? Were the 'tongues' that HE spoke the same as those that were 'useless'?
And, Paul explained the PURPOSE for 'tongues'. Are the tongues spoken in the Charismatic churches today the SAME 'tongues' that Paul spoke?
If you answer is yes, then how does one 'come to grips' with the words of Paul concerning 'tongues'?
For He plainly offered that 'tongues' are FOR A SIGN, NOT to them that BELIEVE, but to them that BELIEVE NOT. So, were the 'tongues' that Paul was refering to when he offered witness that HE SPOKE IN "TONGUES" the SAME tongues as those used in the churches TODAY?
He plainly offered that when they are spoken IN the Church that; one, two, NO MORE THAN THREE, by course, (in order), and that there MUST BE an interpreter. Women CANNOT speak 'tongues' IN THE CHURCH. And the ONLY way that The Spirit would GIVE UTTERANCE would be for the edification OF THE BODY.
So, are the 'tongues' being spoken TODAY the 'same tongues' as those that Paul spoke?
Blessings,
MEC