Ooh...you do resent me, don't you Joe?
What makes you think I resent you personally? I am attacking error, and for the time being, the source is you...
Jesus spent much of His time in Scriptures attacking error - not out of resentment, but out of the "hope", if you will, that conversion would take place.
We love the sinner, hate the sin, correct?
Unfortunately, you have totally missed what I've been saying.
You can't hide behind that excuse anymore. You have stated often enough on your ideas of mercy being granted as a result of the perfect law follower (whom the Jews didn't know of during the ENTIRE TIME of the OT...) There is nothing in the OT that speaks of God awaiting a perfect Law follower.
I have already posted Psalm 130, that tells us that God does NOT mark us in our sin, does not expect perfection - "for who could stand"? In addition, the Psalms also tell us that God "forgets" our sins, washes us "pure and clean" - even in the OT. The OT does not speak of holding sins in abeyance until the perfect Law follower came, hundreds of years later...
Perhaps you have found that elusive Scripture citation from the OT that shows that God did?
Do you believe it was even necessary for Jesus to die for our sins?
In a sense, yes, because God's plan called for that act of love. Was God forced to send His Son to die out of necessity to fulfill the Law's requirement? No. The Law has no power over God. God could have saved mankind in a number of ways. The problem I see in your point is the incorrect notion of God
requiring perfection before His Justice is satisfied. That is what we would rationally OWE Him, IF He demanded it. But where does God demand such perfection from man?
Jesus died for our sake as an expiation, a vicarious offering for the sake of others. That is the reason for any sacrifice. To ask God for mercy. To intercede for ourselves and others. Christ's self-sacrifice was an intercessionary offering of self for the sake of others.
The difference in our points is that you suggest that Christ was OWED something and that God waited to grant mercy until that perfection was achieved (works salvation) while I state that Christ is INTERCEDING, ASKING for the gift of salvation (grace, a freely given gift). Being that God is a Lover, loves His Son, the Father would NOT choose to ignore the pleas of His interceding Son, given that total act of obedience and humility to the will of the Father.
Thus, God grants mercy to mankind due to the intercession of Jesus. ASKING for mercy, not demanding it as payment. For example:
Whither the forerunner is for us entered, [even] Jesus, made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec Heb 6:20
A priest offers sacrifice for the sake of begging God for mercy. Interceding for the people. Jesus offers Himself - which is what the lamb of sacrifice of the OT POINTS to. The perfect offering made - NOT to satisfy perfect Justice - but that the prayers of a righteous man are effective to the "heart" of God.
STILL, God grants mercy freely as a gift. But with such a High Priest, how could the Father refuse such an act made by the Son???!!!!
you seem to deny Jesus and the need of His coming, at every turn.
Jesus came for a different reason than you suggest. There was no requirement that God's "Justice" be satisfied by having His Beloved Son killed. WHOM was God paying this to?
It even sounds mocking when you put your quotes around the "perfect law follower".
Putting words in quotes does not mean one is mocking something...
Since sin is the transgression of God's law, are you saying Jesus was an "imperfect law follower".
There is no use in trying to say that I am making such a ridiculous statement. Let's concentrate on your statements that you have explicitly repeated...
If you continue on with this obvious dislike of me and everything I post, you'll end up with an ulcer...or worse.
What makes you think I dislike you? Hate the sin. Love the sinner.
Regards