That's true, you seem to see salvation based on "mere" mercy.
You seem to desperately try to avoid my simple questions by trying to claim that I am belittling the work of Christ on the cross...
If that were the case there would have been no need for the cross.
Your logic fails. It presents a false dilemna. The "need for the cross" does not depend entirely on "perfect justice" being satisfied. Thus, it is not either :
God needs the cross to show perfect Justice.
God doesn't need the cross because He doesn't care about Justice.
The "need for the cross" is not ultimately dependent upon Justice at all...
You make it sound like another way could have been possible.
What is commanding God to sacrifice His Son???
The Law??? Some obscure and non-biblical human notion of justice?
Please, please explain to me where the Bible tells us this NEED for perfect justice to be satisfied at the cross as the ONLY alternative to satisfy God.
Since all things are possible with God, you're left to believe He chose the best.
Of course, that is without question. But it doesn't follow that your reason is correct.
What you're doing is concentrating so heavily on one of God's attributes that you ignore others. God's Justice, for instance.
That is YOUR idea of Justice. Justice and what satisfies "it" is dependent upon the One offended. Not YOUR ideas.
If a kid throws a baseball through my window, "justice" states that the kid or the father of the kid pay me back for a new window. However, the choice of what satisfies MY justice, what is due to ME, is dependent upon ME. Not you. I can have the kid work in my yard for a month and pay the rest. I don't have to require an "eye for an eye".
I have asked you from the BEGINNING. Where is this biblical notion that God DEMANDS perfect satisfaction from a perfect Law follower? HUMAN thinking may require that, but does the Bible state that GOD requires this? It might seem fitting that God would, but God is a surprising Being. Who would have thought that He would become man and die for our sake? Don't go assuming that God's justice demands something when you cannot even find that idea in Scriptures...
What is galling is that I keep asking for this Scriptural data and you keep ignoring me. Why is that, Glorydaz? Are you more intent on just being "right"? If you can present a case to back up your point with Scriptures, please do so.
God's Justice will reign over God's Mercy if man's heart condition is unrepentant.
You have not shown me that you even know what mercy is. To you, it depends upon a guilty person being released from punishment... Any reader of the OT will shake their head in wonder on how someone could come up with that nonsense...
If there was a righteous judge on the bench and a man came before him guilty as sin (pardon the pun), would he extend mercy if the man wasn't sorry for what he'd done? I'm talking a righteous judge, here, not a liberal judge who lets off all offenders to the dismay of the man's victims. Would it be right to let the guilty go free?
You are again comparing apples and automotives. Human judges are hardly comparible to God, since human judges are not personally offended, nor did they create the offender, nor is THEIR Law broken. Nor did the human judge provide help to the future criminal (grace) to stay on the good side of the Law. They are tasked to do a job, and in tort law, they hardly have any room to grant mercy. They must follow the letter of the Law or precedent.
It was God's mercy to mankind that Jesus came to the cross.
Yes, but not to pay a "debt" to some unnamed being that held mankind in bondage. The term "redeem" is an analogy, it can only be taken so far. God did not "buy back" humanity from the devil.
Regards