So Paul is saying that the "jew" cannot keep or be justifed by the law, but we gentiles can?
Of course not, Paul said in Romans 1 that the Gentiles refused to worship God with the knowledge that they had. However, Paul is not addressing universally
every single person, for clearly in Romans 2, he DOES have actual people in mind, exceptional people who DID follow a law written on their hearts, and those people were considered "spiritual jews", entering eternal life. Was this because of their own ability, or faith in God? What do you think? The later, of course.
Despite the "faith v works" argument inaccurately foisted upon the Scriptures in Romans 3, clearly, the
subject is one
POSSESSION of the Law as a means to boast and to receive eternal salvation. Romans 2-4 are clearly written to attack Judaizers and has precious little to do with "faith v good deeds". A primary theme in Sacred Scriptures is
DOING the will of God. What does Jesus tell us in Matthew 7:21? You have read other parts of the Bible besides Paul, right?
Paul clearly shows how
Jews WITH THE MOSAIC LAW were not doers of the law automatically.
No one will receive salvation without faith. No one can please God without faith. Just HAVING the Covenant promises were inadequate, because the Covenant promises were CONDITIONAL, based upon faith and trust in God.
For the is no difference, and Paul males this point very clear, that He is speaking to ALL as it relates to the law and its purpose.
I guess Paul had no clue about the dozen or so citations from the OT about righteous people who were fulfilling the Law... Nor do you.
I guess Paul didn't read the Psalms, that over and over again speak of people seeking God... Nor have you.
The only part of the Bible that you seem to regard is a few letters from St. Paul. The rest doesn't seem as inspired by God in your eyes.
Rom 3:20-23
THEREFORE BY THE DEEDS OF THE LAW THERE SHALL NO FLESH BE JUSTIFIED.
I am saying nothing about being justified by the law.
No one can be justified by the Law, and I have NEVER said that one was justified by the Law!!! Are you so committed to dissension among the Body? How many times do I have to say it before it sinks in over there?
FOR THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE JEW AND THE GENTILE.
Not for why you think. The Gentiles didn't HAVE the Mosaic Law. The difference is that having the Law didn't help the Jews as a nation. Whether Gentiles as a people or Jews as a people, it didn't matter. This is why Paul tells us that God is not a respecter of humans. The "difference" is not that
all men were evil and refused to seek out God, he tells us in Romans 2 that some are NOT evil!!! Have you READ Romans 2???
The "no difference" is that ALL WILL BE JUDGED BY WHAT THEY DO BY FAITH IN GOD!!! Jews and Gentiles will be judged on what they do, based on trust-filled actions... NOT ON POSSESSION OF THE LAW!
THAT is the theme of Romans 2-4. Whether Jew or Gentile, you must have faith in God, faith that is founded on loving deeds. Jews would not get a "pass" because they had the Mosaic Law!!!
funny how some attempt to ingore the clear and evident truth of scripture by saying "Paul was speaking to the jews"
I wouldn't call your ignoring the clear truth of Scripture (which is larger than the Pauline corpus, by the way) "funny"... :gah