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The Process Of Justification

How can a person be "made perfect forever" by God (a completed act), yet still be in the process of "being made holy" by God?
That was the point I was making to you in the very beginning.
Since we know it's true (the verse plainly says that) we have to ask ourselves how both can be true at the same time. Thus the nature of there being a legal declaration of perfect righteousness (which qualifies us for salvation), and an actual measure of our behavioral righteousness, which the law proves to every honest person couldn't qualify a flea for the kingdom of God.

In time, our behavioral righteousness--the things we actually do that are righteous--increases toward what God through Christ already made us legally on paper in heaven to be when we first believed. It is this difference that doctrines like your's fail to see and grasp, and which eventually leads them to the (erroneous and damnable) conclusion that the righteousness required to inherit the kingdom is secured by doing righteous things. As Paul said, it is evident from the law that is an impossibility (Galatians 3:11, I think).
 
It's both "are sanctified" and "are being sanctified", depending on context. You were fine with the KJV and the NASB (which you always use here), which both say "are sanctified" in the last three(?) posts. Now, when you have it pointed out to you that "are sanctified" refers to the afterlife, you want to switch versions in an attempt to change meaning. I guess when you read what follows, you'll switch it back?


So now it's "For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy."? Are you going to stick with this one? How can a person be "made perfect forever" by God (a completed act), yet still be in the process of "being made holy" by God? He has already "made them perfect", but He is still in the process of making them holy? A person can be perfect without having their sanctification completed? How so? What would it be called when that sanctification is actually completed, super-perfect?

Which one of your works are you counting on to justify you before God at the judgment seat of Christ, remembering that they must be perfect and without blemish..

tob
 
Are you saying that one must have the intelligence to understand how many times Abraham was justified or else they may not be saved?
Because that was my point.
Can you give a yes or no answer to this?
Of course not. You are not held accountable for what you don't know or what you don't (or can't) understand. However, if you are capable of understanding and choose to turn a blind eye, it might not damn you to eternal hellfire, but you will be lacking in knowledge of God and seeing the world the way He created it. Your sanctity might not be effected, but your sanity might be. Why would you choose to stay ignorant?
 
Of course not. You are not held accountable for what you don't know or what you don't (or can't) understand. However, if you are capable of understanding and choose to turn a blind eye, it might not damn you to eternal hellfire, but you will be lacking in knowledge of God and seeing the world the way He created it. Your sanctity might not be effected, but your sanity might be. Why would you choose to stay ignorant?

Ignorant?
No.
I was wondering why this is so important to you since in my 30 plus years of being saved, I have never heard a word of this.
I can't even find anything on the internet about it.
 
I'm not sure what point you're trying to make here. Noah's faith had works attached, so it was by definition not a dead faith.
So did Abraham's in Gen. 12.

The argument is not that those listed in Hebrews 11 were not justified. The argument is, we only know when his faith culminated in a declaration of righteousness by the time he gets to Genesis 15:6. Hebrews 11 doesn't give us that information. Genesis 15 does. Hebrews 11 is how we know for sure he started having commendable faith at least as early as when he left his homeland. A faith that resulted in a declaration of righteousness by the time he gets to Genesis 15.

We know for sure that he was justified by his faith because God plainly said so in Genesis 15:6. It doesn't say he was justified anywhere else. Neither Genesis nor Hebrews 11 say that. It's impossible to get a doctrine of progressive, repeated justification out of those passages. And any implication of a repeated justification drawn from these accounts of Abraham's faith is quickly put to rest by the fact that the Bible says justification--being made legally perfect in righteousness before God--is a one-time thing that happens for "all time" (Hebrews 10:14 NASB).

A further study of Hebrews shows us the nature of this perfect right standing with God granted to those who take the sacrifice of Jesus to the Father through faith. The point of which is, it takes away the guilt of the sin nature (Hebrews 9:13-14), not just forgives the sin you have committed to date. The sacrifice separates you from the ongoing guilt and resultant separation of the sin nature. That's how Christ's sacrifice makes us legally righteous and guilt free, forever, in God's sight, all the while we struggle to live up to that new right standing before God in our daily behavior. Comprendo?
I was pretty busy this week and couldn't be as thorough in my posts as I wanted to be. I'll try and give as much detail as I can here.

Paul says that Abraham was justified in Gen. 15:6. He talks about a point in time, he doesn't use the words "Genesis 15:6", he describes the scene in Gen. 15, then says that his faith was "reckoned to him as righteousness".

"The promise to Abraham and his descendants, that they should inherit the world, did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith. " (Rom. 4:13)

You have already agreed that Paul is laying out a chronology of Abraham's faith in Rom. 4, and that this verse refer to Gen. 12, so...

Paul says that Abraham was justified in Gen. 12. He talks about a point in time, he doesn't use the words "Genesis 12". He describes the scene in Gen. 12, then says that the promise, made in Gen. 12 "did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith."

Paul says in Rom. 4:13 that Abraham was justified in Gen. 12, that's what his accepting the promise "through the righteousness of faith means".

Now, I have explained Heb. 11 over and over, but if it will help you "comprendo" the word of God, I'll lay it out again.

"Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen. For by it the men of old received divine approval. By faith we understand that the world was created by the word of God, so that what is seen was made out of things which do not appear." (Heb. 11:1-2)

A faith that receives divine approval can't possibly be a "dead faith". You keep using the term "commendable faith", but if you mean a faith that can not justify, then by your own definition, it is "dead". During our discussion of James 2, you repeatedly said that the faith that doesn't justify, the faith that has no works attached, is the faith of the demons. I doubt you would try and make the case that the dead faith of demons "received divine approval".

By this faith, the "men of old" received divine approval. The author will go on to tell us who these "men of old" are and they all have the faith that "received divine approval", unless there is some reason to think otherwise. The same faith. Next verse...


By faith Abel offered to God a more acceptable sacrifice than Cain, through which he received approval as righteous, God bearing witness by accepting his gifts; he died, but through his faith he is still speaking. (Heb. 11:4 RSV)

Here we see that the "approval" spoken of in verse 1 was "approval as righteous". Read that again, Jethro so you will fully understand. By faith Abel offered his sacrifice "through which he received approval as righteous". Now, let's read verse 1b again:

"
For by it [faith] the men of old received divine approval."

The faith being spoken of here is the faith that receives approval as righteous. Let's move on...

By faith Enoch was taken up so that he should not see death; and he was not found, because God had taken him. Now before he was taken he was attested as having pleased God. And without faith it is impossible to please him. For whoever would draw near to God must believe that he exists and that he rewards those who seek him. (ibid. v.6)

Did Enoch have a justifying faith? It certainly doesn't say he did, but, since God "took him" and he "pleased God", my guess would be "yes". So I would say that's two of the "men of old" whose faith justified them, Abel and Enoch. In case you disagree, read on. Next verse...


By faith Noah, being warned by God concerning events as yet unseen, took heed and constructed an ark for the saving of his household; by this he condemned the world and became an heir of the righteousness which comes by faith.
(ibid. v.7)

Well, this is pretty obvious. Noah was an "heir of righteousness", which means he was justified. Hummm.... Whose "righteousness" did Noah inherit "by faith"? He was an "heir" of righteousness. It was obviously through Enoch and Abel. So, even if you disagree that Enoch was actually justified even though he was "taken up" by God, the use of the word "heir" should dispel any doubt.

Let's recap so far. We have three "men of old" who received "divine approval" for their obedient faith and who are, beyond a doubt, justified, Abel, Enoch and Noah. The word for the faith that justified them is "pistis".

Now, the last word in the sentence "heir of the righteousness which comes by faith" is also the word "pistis". This is the same word used in the beginning of each verse in Heb. 11, "By faith..." (pistis). All of them have meant justifying faith. Please read that again and let it sink in. Every instance of "By faith..." from Abel to Enoch to Noah has meant justifying faith.

Next verse...

"By faith [pistis] Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to a place which he was to receive as an inheritance; and he went out, not knowing where he was to go." (ibid. v.7)

So, Noah was "an heir of righteousness which comes by faith". This is obviously a "faith" that justifies. From the beginning of the "men of old" list, the author has used the word "faith" to describe a justifying faith. Every instance of "by faith" he uses means "justifying faith".

To believe that Abel, Enoch and Noah were justified, but Abraham was not, is laughable. The author uses the same word for Abraham's faith that he used in the sentence directly before, the sentence that says Noah "became an heir of the righteousness which comes by faith."

Irrefutable.

I'm pretty much expecting another reference to Rom. 4 and how the above is "impossible".






 
What you are trying to say it means each and every instance of faith, even commendable faith (the subject of Hebrews 11), results in justification.
Really? Please read my previous post and then tell me that Hebrews 11 is about "commendable faith". "Heir of righteousness", Enoch being taken to Heaven and all that. BTW, what is your definition of "commendable faith" and where do you find this concept in Scripture?
 
James 2:24 is a "trump verse". It's not open for honest debate. I explained this in post #396.
The problem comes in when a person takes a 'trump verse' and decides they're going to improperly redefine words, alter context, etc. to rob it of it's status as a 'trump' verse. That's what you did with Hebrews 10:14. And, that's what many people do with James 2:24, and which I thoroughly resist. So you have no argument here that somehow I accept Hebrews 10:14 as a trump verse, but not James 2:24.
My point is, there are no "trump verses". Proper exegesis doesn't work that way.
 
I took this morning to restate the many arguments I have already made against your doctrine and to add to them, directly addressing the passages you cite.

Well, against my doctrine anyway. You certainly have not addressed Heb. 11:3-7, which I have been harping on since the beginning of this thread, nor have you addressed Rom. 4:13, which applies to Gen. 12 and says "...through righteousness".

How is it possible for you to continue to insist that I haven't engaged you and did not even try? What I will find futile from this point on is making you see that I have done that.

Simply either copy and paste your exegesis of the verses mentioned above or link the posts. It's possible I might have missed them.
 
That was the point I was making to you in the very beginning.
Since we know it's true (the verse plainly says that) we have to ask ourselves how both can be true at the same time.
Both can not be true at the same time, that's why it's a faulty translation.

"For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy." (NIV)

The way the NIV translates makes no sense. Jesus has "made perfect forever" people who He is still making holy. Either perfection has nothing to do with holiness, or it's mistranslated. How in the world can a person be already "made perfect" by Christ, while at the "same time" be in the process of being made perfect by Christ? Both of these things are being done by Christ, right? Christ has already completed the "perfection" yet not the "holiness"? Either our perfection has been completed by Christ, or we still need to "be made" holy by Christ. It can't logically be both. It's like saying "we have arrived in New York and are in the process of traveling to the Big Apple."

And please, please don't start talking about "behavioral righteousness". This verse has nothing to do with personal holiness. I repeat, nothing to do with personal holiness, which is why it says "being made" holy. The onus is all on Christ. He is the one who "makes perfect forever" and the one Who "is in the process of making holy". That's why it makes no sense and is a faulty translation. It should be "are holy", because the reference is clearly about the afterlife. That's why almost all the other versions translate it "are holy" or "are sanctified".
 
Ignorant?
No.
I was wondering why this is so important to you

Because the Truth is important to me. A more relevant question would be, why doesn't it matter to you? If someone presents a Biblical principle and it differs from yours, don't you think it's possible you are wrong? And if you are wrong on a point as important as whether justification is a process, shouldn't you change your view?

since in my 30 plus years of being saved, I have never heard a word of this.
You wouldn't, unless you went to Catholic apologetic sources. Most Protestant denominations take one time justification by faith alone for granted, so their discussions focus on other aspects of their faith.

I can't even find anything on the internet about it.
Here you go.

https://www.ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/ABRAHAM.HTM
 
Right. Paul was a man who did not consider himself to have been made perfect in his behavior on this earth, but surely one who considered himself to stand guilt free and justified before God just as if he was perfect in behavior,

Perfect, in this verse, is a reference to complete, not perfect in behavior.

He will be complete when he has attained the resurrection and has become a son of God in reality, whereby he possesses an immortal body that is glorified just like Jesus.

That is what Paul is conveying here.
 
Which one of your works are you counting on to justify you before God at the judgment seat of Christ, remembering that they must be perfect and without blemish..

tob
What are you talking about? Where did I say my works justify me and must be perfect? Rat-a-tat-tat...
 
Because the Truth is important to me. A more relevant question would be, why doesn't it matter to you? If someone presents a Biblical principle and it differs from yours, don't you think it's possible you are wrong? And if you are wrong on a point as important as whether justification is a process, shouldn't you change your view?


You wouldn't, unless you went to Catholic apologetic sources. Most Protestant denominations take one time justification by faith alone for granted, so their discussions focus on other aspects of their faith.


Here you go.

https://www.ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/ABRAHAM.HTM
Okay, I read that.
But if I love Jesus now and forever, do I really need to hear that?
 
That was for your sake. I have no problem with 'are sanctified' referring to us in our mortal bodies.

"Therefore, having these promises, beloved, let us cleanse ourselves from all defilement of flesh and spirit, perfecting holiness in the fear of God." (2 Corinthians 7:1 NASB)

In our human bodies we are in the process of sanctification in regard to actually acting like the set apart (sanctified) vessels of honor that God appointed us to be.
I missed this one. You changed versions to the NIV for my sake? I don't use the NIV. I read it a lot when I was debating a person who used it exclusively (pre-internet), and found some of the translations wanting. I usually use the RSV to read, but I usually quote either the KJV (default) or whatever version the person I'm talking to uses. I think it's prudent to use either the KJV or the NASB here. "Are being made holy" is really not accurate.
 
"For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy." (NIV)

I see this as Through the Blood of Christ God sees us as perfect... while He is perfecting us..
Sorta like ... If i was to die today i would see Him... yet 'hopefully' i will mature in Him and see Him in a few years
 
So did Abraham's in Gen. 12.
But the faith that he had that had works attached did not justify him until Genesis 15:6. This is the sticking point you can't seem to see any other way: Faith does not justify categorically and without exception just because it did something. I proved this to you, but you seem incapable of seeing what I showed you. And that is why it's really pretty meaningless to try to continue to talk to someone who can't see. My responses will be brief for that reason.

Paul says that Abraham was justified in Gen. 15:6. He talks about a point in time, he doesn't use the words "Genesis 15:6"
Right, he doesn't use the words 'Genesis 15:6'. He directly quotes it: "3 What does Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.” (Romans 4:3 NIV)

"The promise to Abraham and his descendants, that they should inherit the world, did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith. " (Rom. 4:13)

You have already agreed that Paul is laying out a chronology of Abraham's faith in Rom. 4, and that this verse refer to Gen. 12, so...

Paul says that Abraham was justified in Gen. 12.
No, no. That verse does not say Abraham was justified in Genesis 12.
Paul is explaining how the promise comes through the way of faith, not through the way of keeping the law. The context bears this out completely:

"he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them. 12And he is then also the father of the circumcised who not only are circumcised but who also follow in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.

13It was not through the law that Abraham and his offspring received the promise that he would be heir of the world, but through the righteousness that comes by faith. 14For if those who depend on the law are heirs, faith means nothing and the promise is worthless, 15because the law brings wrath. And where there is no law there is no transgression.

16Therefore, the promise comes by faith, so that it may be by grace and may be guaranteed to all Abraham’s offspring—not only to those who are of the law but also to those who have the faith of Abraham. He is the father of us all." (Romans 4:11-16 NIV)

Context, dadof10, context! He is not making the point that Abraham was justified in Genesis 12. He is making the point that the promise comes through faith, not the works of the law. That's all. Read it. And read it without your predetermined doctrine interpreting it for you and making it mean to you what it has already determined ahead of time for you that it means.


Now, I have explained Heb. 11 over and over, but if it will help you "comprendo" the word of God, I'll lay it out again.

"Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen. For by it the men of old received divine approval. By faith we understand that the world was created by the word of God, so that what is seen was made out of things which do not appear." (Heb. 11:1-2)
A faith that receives divine approval can't possibly be a "dead faith".
Believing that God by his command created what is from what is not is dead faith (no works attached), but it is commendable. But the point that you can not evade is, not all faith that has works attached justifies. I proved this to you. Believing that God is the creator is one of the Biblical examples I gave you right there in Hebrews 11.

You keep using the term "commendable faith", but if you mean a faith that can not justify, then by your own definition, it is "dead". During our discussion of James 2, you repeatedly said that the faith that doesn't justify, the faith that has no works attached, is the faith of the demons. I doubt you would try and make the case that the dead faith of demons "received divine approval".
You keep creating erroneous inverses out of what I say in an effort to discredit what I say:

I said the chapter is about commendable faith. You twist that to say I said 'all faith is commendable', citing the demons who have faith but who are not commended for that faith to try to discredit what I actually did say, not what you turned it around to say. 'All faith is commendable' is not what I said. There is faith that is commendable, but which does not justify. That I did say.

I say some of the examples of faith in the chapter justified. You twist that to say 'since it's faith it had to justify'. But that is not what I said. That's what you are saying.


You keep using the term "commendable faith"
Yes, 'commendable' faith. And this is why (I don't make this stuff up):

1 Now faith is confidence in what we hope for and assurance about what we do not see. 2 This is what the ancients were commended for." (Hebrews 11:1-2 NIV)

39 These were all commended for their faith, yet none of them received what had been promised" (Hebrews 11:39 NIV)

It's a chapter about 'commendable' faith. Commendable because it was faith that believed something it could not see and did not receive, and acted accordingly. It's not, as you suggest, a chapter about faith that categorically and without exception justified the person in the exact moment they had that faith.
 
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