This scripture says to me that God did call them by the Holy Spirit and God did allowed them to resist the Holy Spirit.
Yes, God did call to all flesh and all flesh resisted him without exception. Which is why we require an irresistible grace that would regenerate man in the flesh, to be born in the spirit with a new heart, after which he is able to discern the things of the Spirit(1Cor 2:14) and obey God.
Can you give me a scripture were God called someone by the Holy Spirit and did not allow them to resist?
Every single instance of a person being regenerated, really. Of course, you'd say it was that person not resisting and I'd say that's irresistible grace right there - we wouldn't make progress along this line. For instance, Can you give me a scripture where God is pleased with someone for obeying
in the flesh?
Anyway, most commonly used prooftexts are Acts 13:48, Acts 16:14, 1John 5:1 - but we'll be dabbling in greek grammar to discuss how it could mean something other than what is immediately apparent - so while I'm stating these to show that the irresistible grace camp do see confirmation in Scripture, I do acknowledge it need not be conclusive enough for one of an alternate view.
I personally felt John 6:64-65 showed a stronger correlation - some did not believe since it was not given to them by the Father. Why was it given to the others then? I haven't yet come across convincing alternate interpretations of this.
2Cor 4:4 speaks of the blinding of the minds of the unbelievers, that prevents them from seeing the light of the Gospel - but the believers have God shining that light in their hearts (2Cor 4:6).
Eze 37:1-10 shows a work done by God
alone, in giving new life to the very dry bones - it's difficult for me to imagine the dry bones being asked to choose if they wanted to resist/accept this supernatural work of God. This then leads on to Eze 37:14 which echoes the new covenant stated in Eze 36:24-27.
Apart from all these, there still is the matter of the WHY - why must there be irresistible grace.
1. God created man a
Living
Soul*, and called it good = (LS)
2. The fall resulted in man with a
Sinful
Flesh* = (LS - SF)
3. God provides sufficient
Knowledge* of His redemptive plans through Christ = (LS - SF) + K
4. Man, still cannot will to obey the
Gospel*,
of his own accord, due to sinful flesh = (LS - SF) + K =X=> G
5. Man requires on God's
Grace* to overcome sinful flesh to obey the Gospel in the spirit = (LS + Gr) + K ===> G
Now, if as you state, this Grace in Point 5 can be resisted - then man's state has not changed one bit from Point 4, and so what effective work has such Grace accomplished? For to say that man,
of his own accord, has resisted God's Grace - would be the same as Point 4 which says he has not the will to obey,
of his own accord. What changed then? Rather, for man's state to change from Point 4, there must be an effective irresistible change worked in him, that overcomes the sinful flesh.