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Three person God identified in the Bible?

Where is the three person God identified in the Bible?


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Actually, there is no word "Godhead" anywhere in the Greek. Also, most of the modern Bibles, at least the main, respectable one, do not use the word even once--not the ESV, HCSB, LEB, NASB, NIV, NRSV. Only the NKJV, which isn't surprising, uses it twice.
Act_17:29 (AFV) Therefore, since we are the offspring of God, we should not think that the Godhead is like that which is made of gold, or silver, or stone—a graven thing of art devised by the imagination of man;

Rom_1:20 (AFV) For the invisible things of Him are perceived from the creation of the world, being understood by the things that were made—both His eternal power and Godhead— so that they are without excuse;

Col_2:9 (AFV) For in Him (Christ) dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;
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Act_17:29 (AFV) Therefore, since we are the offspring of God, we should not think that the Godhead is like that which is made of gold, or silver, or stone—a graven thing of art devised by the imagination of man;

Rom_1:20 (AFV) For the invisible things of Him are perceived from the creation of the world, being understood by the things that were made—both His eternal power and Godhead— so that they are without excuse;

Col_2:9 (AFV) For in Him (Christ) dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;
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Yes, the English word appears in a few versions, but there is no Greek word that means Godhead, hence why most modern translations don't have it. I haven't even heard of the AFV.
 
Yes, the English word appears in a few versions, but there is no Greek word that means Godhead, hence why most modern translations don't have it. I haven't even heard of the AFV.
AFV. A faithful version.

Col_2:9 is in all translations. For in Him (Christ) dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;

Let us not deviate from the fullness of Scripture.

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Praises.

God (Jesus Christ) is a spirit.
John 4:24
Romans 8:9-11

God is one person.

In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with the Father and the Son was the Father.
John 1:1
Yet, the idea that God is one person is not only never taught in the Bible, it defies all reason, grammar, and language.

Interestingly, you repeat what you think John 1:1 means despite my have proven otherwise. You cannot simply substitute in any word you like and think you have the right meaning. To substitute in "Father" is begging the question. It would be great if you started addressing all those posts and arguments of mine that you have thus far ignored. You complain about others doing it in another thread, but you've been doing it yourself continuously throughout this discussion.
 
AFV. A faithful version.

Col_2:9 is in all translations.
Of course it is, but that misses the point entirely.

For in Him (Christ) dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;
Col 2:9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily, (ESV)

Col 2:9 For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ, (HCSB)

Col 2:9 because in him all the fullness of deity dwells bodily, (LEB)

Col 2:9 For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form, (NASB)

Col 2:9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, (NIV)

Col 2:9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily, (NRSV)

Let us not deviate from the fullness of Scripture.

.
Who is deviating?
 
Yet, the idea that God is one person is not only never taught in the Bible, it defies all reason, grammar, and language.

Interestingly, you repeat what you think John 1:1 means despite my have proven otherwise. You cannot simply substitute in any word you like and think you have the right meaning. To substitute in "Father" is begging the question. It would be great if you started addressing all those posts and arguments of mine that you have thus far ignored. You complain about others doing it in another thread, but you've been doing it yourself continuously throughout this discussion.
John 1:1 is correct and combined with John 1:14 closes the subject.

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
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John 1:1 is correct and combined with John 1:14 closes the subject.

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
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I agree that it closes the subject, as it unequivocally proves that the Word was the eternally preexisting, pre-incarnate Son of God but not the Father. I have shown how at least twice in this thread and yet every anti-trinitarian has ignored my argument, which is based on the Greek grammar that John uses.
 
Interestingly, you repeat what you think John 1:1 means despite my have proven otherwise. You cannot simply substitute in any word you like and think you have the right meaning. To substitute in "Father" is begging the question.
Hmm. Let's see:

God, as used in that specific verse, is Greek word 2319 theos.

[Long before the NT was written, 2316 (theós) referred to the supreme being (read: one person) who owns and sustains all things.]
https://biblehub.com/greek/2316.htm
(emphasis mine)

Nope, I had it correct.

Thanks for keeping me honest though.

John 1:1 makes clear that Jesus is "the Supreme Being (one person) who owns and sustains all things."
 
Oh, are we discussing God Almighty?
We are discussing what God reveals about himself in the Bible, and he never once says or implies that he is only one person.

Hmm. Let's see:

God, as used in that specific verse, is Greek word 2319 theos.


https://biblehub.com/greek/2316.htm
(emphasis mine)

Nope, I had it correct.

Thanks for keeping me honest though.
You had what correct? Theos is used many times in the Bible in various ways with various nuances in meaning. The way you substituted “Father” for Theos is begging the question, just as you are doing so again by stating you were right to do so. It is also to purposely distort what the verse is saying.
 
We are discussing what God reveals about himself in the Bible, and he never once says or implies that he is only one person.
That's just flat-out nonsense.

"To whom then will ye liken Me, or shall I be equal? saith the Holy One."
Isaiah 40:25
"...the Holy One of Israel."
Isaiah 41:14
"...the Holy One of Israel."
Isaiah 41:16
"...I am the Lord thy God, the Holy One of Israel, thy Savior: I gave Egypt for thy ransom, ..."
Isaiah 43:3
"... I am the Lord; and beside Me there is no Savior."
Isaiah 43:11
"...the Lord your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel: ..."
Isaiah 43:14

There's probably about 10-15 more to be found in the chapters that lead up to chapter 48.

Wowzers.
 
That's just flat-out nonsense.

"To whom then will ye liken Me, or shall I be equal? saith the Holy One."
Isaiah 40:25
"...the Holy One of Israel."
Isaiah 41:14
"...the Holy One of Israel."
Isaiah 41:16
"...I am the Lord thy God, the Holy One of Israel, thy Savior: I gave Egypt for thy ransom, ..."
Isaiah 43:3
"... I am the Lord; and beside Me there is no Savior."
Isaiah 43:11
"...the Lord your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel: ..."
Isaiah 43:14

There's probably about 10-15 more to be found in the chapters that lead up to chapter 48.

Wowzers.
As I've pointed out repeatedly, they are statements of monotheism only. They say absolutely nothing about whether or not God is an absolute unity or a compound unity; they are neither for nor against the concept of God being triune. The Hebrew does not support your claim about these verses, but rather supports one of the foundations of the doctrine of the Trinity, a central doctrine of Christianity, namely, monotheism. In fact, there is not a single verse in the entire Bible that supports the idea that God is an absolute unity, that is, only one person.

Why is it that you haven't addressed the argument I've put forward showing how you are misusing these verses, one that I've put forward at least twice and pointed out that you have ignored it at least twice? If you addressed it, then perhaps we could stop going in circles by repeating this defeated argument, and move further along.
 
Of course not.

God is not a family of persons.

You err not knowing the scriptures. This is why you reject scripture in favor of your denominational indoctrination.


“For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.” This is a great mystery, but I speak concerning Christ and the church. Ephesians 5:31-32




JLB
 
To whom then will ye liken Me, or shall I be equal? saith the Holy One."

Who do you believe the Holy One of Israel of Israel is referring to?


The Father
The Son Jesus Christ
The Holy Spirit
 
You err not knowing the scriptures. This is why you reject scripture in favor of your denominational indoctrination.


“For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.” This is a great mystery, but I speak concerning Christ and the church. Ephesians 5:31-32




JLB
Christ and the church, is a different subject from the One God.
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Who do you believe the Holy One of Israel of Israel is referring to?


The Father
The Son Jesus Christ
The Holy Spirit
God is Holy, God is Spirit, He is our heavenly Father, Saviour and Redeemer. He manifested himself in Jesus Christ, who did what no mortal man can. He is ONE OMNIPRESENT GOD WHO CANNOT BE DIVIDED, and His Spirit dwells eternally with those who believe in Him and accept Him into their hearts and lives.
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The "theory" being the One omnipresent God.
.

No scripture proves your theory that this one is three is unbiblical.

For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one.
1 John 5:7


JLB
 
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