There are none to the contrary. There are many verses which clearly show the humanity of Jesus and there are many verses which clearly show the deity of Jesus. The doctrine of the Trinity makes sense of both, without one trumping the other. Your position takes those of his humanity and ignores or overrides those of his deity.
The NT repeats it many times and Jesus never denied it. Even the verse you quote could be seen as a rheotrical question by Jesus, pointing out that the man just implied that Jesus was God.
John 17:3 proves the deity of Jesus, particularly when we take the context into account.
Joh 17:3 And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. (ESV)
Notice that eternal life is contingent on knowing
both the Father and the Son, not just the Father. Besides, everything that John says and records about Jesus is based on what he says in his prologue. And his prologue is unequivocally clear that Jesus is in nature God. More than that, though, we need to look at additional context:
Joh 17:4 I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do.
Joh 17:5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed. (ESV)
Jesus is claiming to have existed before creation, which is in full agreement with John 1:1-3. But then it also becomes necessary to look at a couple of verses in Isaiah:
Isa 42:8 I am the LORD; that is my name;
my glory I give to no other, nor my praise to carved idols. (ESV)
Isa 48:11 For my own sake, for my own sake, I do it, for how should my name be profaned?
My glory I will not give to another. (ESV)
So, how can it be that John 17:3 says that only the Father is God, if eternal life is contingent on knowing
both the Father and the Son, and then two verses later Jesus is stating his eternal preexistence with the Father, sharing in the glory of the Father which Yahweh says he gives to no other? It all points to Jesus being God. Jesus points to the Father to bring him glory, but that does not preclude Jesus from also being truly God.
1 Cor 8:6 proves that Jesus is God.
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
First, some theologians, such as N.T. Wright, see it as Paul's expansion of the Shema. Compare:
Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (ESV)
Second,
if you want the verse to say that "one God, the Father" precludes Jesus from being God,
then it necessarily follows that "one Lord, Jesus Christ" precludes the Father from being Lord. Yet that would contradict what Paul writes in many passages, such as1 Tim. 6:15. It would also contradict numerous other passages in the NT, such as Luke 10:21.
Third,
if "of whom are all things" speaks of the Father's absolute existence and his nature as God,
then it necessarily follows that "by whom are all things" speaks of the Son's absolute existence and nature as God. We cannot say that in relation to the Father "all things" means absolutely everything that has come into existence but that it means something different in relation to the Son. And this is confirmed in John 1:1-3, Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2, 8-12; 2:10.
So, simple, sound logic leads to the only conclusion that Jesus, or rather the Son, is also God in nature. Yet, he clearly is distinct from the Father.
Eph 4:4 There is one body and one Spirit—just as you were called to the one hope that belongs to your call—
Eph 4:5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism,
Eph 4:6 one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all. (ESV)
Likewise, Eph 4:5 would preclude the Father from being Lord if only the Father is God. But notice that from verses 4-6 all three persons of the Trinity are mentioned--"one Spirit," "one Lord," "one God." It in no way means that the Son and the Holy Spirit are not also God. If it does, then v. 5 means that the Father isn't Lord, nor is he the Spirit according to v. 4. Additionally, we can't take verses in isolation, this is how erroneous beliefs arise.
No, it is
the historical, orthodox Christian position that is absolutely core to the faith.
If a person doesn't believe Jesus is God, then don't believe in either the Jesus or the God of the Bible. Yet, as John 17:3 states, one must know both in order to have eternal life.
Joh 8:58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.” (ESV)
He didn't say it much at all and when he did, it is typically implied. More than once the Jews correctly understood Jesus's claims to be God, to be equal to the Father, and wanted to stone him for it. Thomas also rightly understood who Jesus was and called Jesus his Lord and his God, without one objection from Jesus, which would have been blasphemous if he hadn't actually been God in human flesh.
