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Unique, Not Only-Begotten

Do you not believe the NT?
Do you believe this?

John 17
3Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent.

1 Corinthians 8
4So about eating food sacrificed to idols: We know that an idol is nothing at all in the world, and that there is no God but one. 5For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many so-called gods and lords), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.
 
Your conclusion doesn't follow. Thomas is addressing Jesus only. That he repeated the first person pronoun is for emphasis, not because he is addressing two subjects. There is only one subject, Jesus.

There is also more context that you are not taking into account, even though Thomas's statement does stand on its own. Look at what Thomas first says when 'the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord."'

Joh 20:24 Now Thomas, one of the twelve, called the Twin, was not with them when Jesus came.
Joh 20:25 So the other disciples told him, “We have seen the Lord.” But he said to them, “Unless I see in his hands the mark of the nails, and place my finger into the mark of the nails, and place my hand into his side, I will never believe.” (ESV)

Notice Thomas's demands in verse 25:

1. Unless I see in his hands the mark of the nails,
2. and place my finger into the mark of the nails,
3. and place my hand into his side,
4. I will never believe.

Then:

Joh 20:26 Eight days later, his disciples were inside again, and Thomas was with them. Although the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, “Peace be with you.”
Joh 20:27 Then he said to Thomas, “Put your finger here, and see my hands; and put out your hand, and place it in my side. Do not disbelieve, but believe.” (ESV)

Notice Jesus's response in verse 27:

1. Put your fingers here,
2. see my hands,
3. put out your hand, and place it in my side.
4. Do not disbelieve, but believe.
That has nothing to do with Thomas' statement other than what gave him the shock to say to nominatives.

Jesus directly responds to each of Thomas's demands with commands to do exactly what Thomas stated. This shows the omniscience of Jesus, to which Thomas responds:

Joh 20:28 And Thomas answered and said to Him, My Lord and my God! (LITV)

Note that Thomas "said to Him;" that is what appears in the Greek. He was directly addressing Jesus. More than that though, is Jesus's response:
Irrelevant grammar information that does not change anything. You avoid how lord and God are translated from 2 subject nouns.

Joh 20:29 Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.” (ESV)
Another thing which doesn't prove your point.

As I have stated already, Jesus doesn't rebuke Thomas.
Thomas was not committing idolatry to recognize both as separate and distinct.

And, again, this fits perfectly with John 1:1. John beings his gospel by stating that the eternal Word is God, who then takes on human flesh, and ends his gospel with Thomas claiming that the incarnate Word, Jesus, was his God. That is a consistent message throughout John's gospel.
Only in your dreams.
 
No, it is not at all difficult to prove. I know you won't provide proof because I know that you cannot; it is impossible that you are correct about the article. That you claim textbooks are consistently wrong about the article says everything I need to know.
The article is often before nouns that are being introduced and not one of a kind. It is used in different accounts on the name someone not known by the account giver in the gospels. It is called the joint or connector noun in Greek, αρθρος. It is before name things because all named things are definite. It is used to connect infinitive verbs to other nouns etc etc.

You want to believe in qualitive nouns. That's crap.

It was supposedly impossible for men to fly.
 
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John 20:29
Where does Jesus say that Thomas isn't blessed?

Jesus never said he is Thomas' God.
Not so. In John's gospel, John starts out by showing that Jesus was truly God in human flesh, Jesus explicitly and implicitly claims to be God, his followers worship him as God, and then it finishes with Thomas claiming Jesus is his God. The lack of rebuke from Jesus would be utterly blasphemous on his part if he wasn't truly God. It's a good thing that he was, as John's gospel shows from beginning to end.

That's a false gospel.
No, it is absolutely central to the gospel.

The logos is personified.
No, the Logos is not personified. That is merely your unsupported opinion. Not only have you not given any evidence that the "logos is personified," all the evidence goes against such an understanding. But, you simply dismiss the evidence without addressing it., which is unfortunate, but not surprising.

No, I just go for the premise. If the premise is flawed the house of cards falls.
Which hasn't been the case. It seems to me that you're avoiding the things difficult for your position. But, I'm not surprised; every single anti-Trinitarian I've debated on this site does that. It shows a lack of comprehensive understanding of what Scripture states regarding God. Everything you've given so far as (supposed) support for your position has been divorced from the context.
 
That has nothing to do with Thomas' statement other than what gave him the shock to say to nominatives.
It has everything to do with Thomas's statement. He wasn't in shock; he fully realized who Jesus was.

Irrelevant grammar information that does not change anything. You avoid how lord and God are translated from 2 subject nouns.
I've avoided nothing. It is very relevant grammar. Thomas was directly addressing Jesus and only Jesus. No offense, but you are the last person I'm going to take Greek lessons from, since you can't even get something basic correct.

Another thing which doesn't prove your point.
It does. Jesus's commending of Thomas for his belief was based on what Thomas said--"My Lord and my God" was evidence of his belief.

Thomas was not committing idolatry to recognize both as separate and distinct.
Of course Thomas wasn't committing idolatry, and neither was Jesus was committing blasphemy, because Jesus truly is God.

Only in your dreams.
Not only in my dreams. John's message about who Jesus is--that he is truly God in human flesh--is perfectly consistent throughout the whole gospel. That Jesus is God is absolutely central to the Christian faith. One cannot be a Christian and deny the deity of Jesus.
 
Where does Jesus say that Thomas isn't blessed?
Jesus said Thomas isn't blessed. Blessed are those who believe and don't see. This is about Thomas requiring material evidence to believe that Jesus was resurrected. Hence why Thomas has always been called a doubter and he was not blessed for this.

Not so. In John's gospel, John starts out by showing that Jesus was truly God in human flesh, Jesus explicitly and implicitly claims to be God, his followers worship him as God, and then it finishes with Thomas claiming Jesus is his God. The lack of rebuke from Jesus would be utterly blasphemous on his part if he wasn't truly God. It's a good thing that he was, as John's gospel shows from beginning to end.
Not so. Jesus came down from heaven. John's gospel begins by saying "he was in the world." This is a reference to earth. The one who was already in the world interacting with humanity is the Father, the only God there is. This is precisely why you won't find a single example of Jesus saying or doing anything in the world, or heaven for that matter, prior to his birth.

No, it is absolutely central to the gospel.
Your words are, and I paraphrase, "believe Jesus is God to be saved." Your words don't appear in scripture. It's a false gospel. You should be believing Jesus is the Son of God and the Messiah to be saved.
No, the Logos is not personified. That is merely your unsupported opinion. Not only have you not given any evidence that the "logos is personified," all the evidence goes against such an understanding. But, you simply dismiss the evidence without addressing it., which is unfortunate, but not surprising.
Yes it's personified. God isn't simply a word, speech, or divine utterance. That is a characteristic of God. The best translation for this is "What God was the word was" i.e., godly.
Which hasn't been the case. It seems to me that you're avoiding the things difficult for your position. But, I'm not surprised; every single anti-Trinitarian I've debated on this site does that. It shows a lack of comprehensive understanding of what Scripture states regarding God. Everything you've given so far as (supposed) support for your position has been divorced from the context.
I hold the upper ground here with scripture on my side. I just don't see the need to patiently respond to all of your points if after addressing your flawed premises you still don't understand. You simply are not open to Jesus not being God. Am I right?
 
He didn't literally pre-exist. His existence in heaven was in the foreknowledge of God. That's my view and due to lack of Biblical evidence to the contrary it can't be contested.

Actually RM, it CAN be contested.
You're in the Theology Forum.
Every statement you make you must be able to back up with scripture.
This is not the place to state your OPINION, everything you post must be proven biblically.

Since you've made an assertion...that being that Jesus' pre-existence is not literal,
you must post the verses in the NT that lead you to this conclusion.


According to your thinking, since Jesus is one with God and the disciples are one with God then the disciples existed eternally. This is why we study and discuss so we can come to the knowledge of these things. This means you're misunderstanding what it means to be one with God.

John 17
21that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me.
Jesus is stating that we are to be IN Christ.
2 Corinthians 5:17
Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation.

We become a new creation...we do not become God.

Galatians 2:20
I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me.


Not only are we in Christ, but He is in us.

John 17:21, which you've referred to above, is Jesus' praying for believers that we should all be ONE.

IOW, you and I are supposed to be believing what Jesus taught,
and we should be understanding it in the same way.
 
John 20:29

Jesus never said he is Thomas' God.


That's a false gospel.


The logos is personified.


No, I just go for the premise. If the premise is flawed the house of cards falls.
Free has requested that you reply to his scripture.
Although you cannot be forced to do this, it is normal on this forum
that when someone is asked for scripture or for reply to scripture, it be given
as a gesture of politeness.
Thanks.
 
Actually RM, it CAN be contested.
You're in the Theology Forum.
Every statement you make you must be able to back up with scripture.
This is not the place to state your OPINION, everything you post must be proven biblically.

Since you've made an assertion...that being that Jesus' pre-existence is not literal,
you must post the verses in the NT that lead you to this conclusion.
And you can't contest it because you have nothing to contest it with in this theology forum. You have opinion and belief, that's all. I have excellent theology.

Christians didn't literally exist before the foundation of the world, then neither did Jesus.

Ephesians 1
4For He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in His presence.

Jesus wasn't literally slain before the creation of the world.

Revelation 13
8All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast—all whose names have not been written in the Lamb’s book of life, the Lamb who was slain from the creation of the world.

There, I disproved it with scripture. Your turn.

Jesus is stating that we are to be IN Christ.
2 Corinthians 5:17
Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation.

We become a new creation...we do not become God.

Galatians 2:20
I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me.


Not only are we in Christ, but He is in us.

John 17:21, which you've referred to above, is Jesus' praying for believers that we should all be ONE.

IOW, you and I are supposed to be believing what Jesus taught,
and we should be understanding it in the same way.
Being one with God has nothing to do with deity for the disciples then it has nothing to do with deity for Jesus. That was your premise and it was proven false. Rather than pad with more and more scripture, maybe begin entertaining the idea you got it all wrong.
 
Do you believe this?

John 17
3Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent.

1 Corinthians 8
4So about eating food sacrificed to idols: We know that an idol is nothing at all in the world, and that there is no God but one. 5For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many so-called gods and lords), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.
Of course I believe it.
There is only ONE GOD.
We Christians are monotheistic, not pantheistic as those in Jesus' time.
Yes.
There is no GOD BUT ONE.

Keep reading....
It states, in the last line of 1 Cor 8:6 that there is but ONE GOD from whom all things came....
And one Lord, Jesus Christ through Whom all things came....

1. So from whom do all things come?
It would seem to me that the reply has to be from The Father AND our Lord Jesus Christ.
How could this Be?
It seems to shatter your belief.

And that might be because you don't believe in the Trinity.
Or you'd understand the NT completely.
 
Free has requested that you reply to his scripture.
Although you cannot be forced to do this, it is normal on this forum
that when someone is asked for scripture or for reply to scripture, it be given
as a gesture of politeness.
Thanks.
I did reply to it.
 
Of course I believe it.
There is only ONE GOD.
We Christians are monotheistic, not pantheistic as those in Jesus' time.
Yes.
There is no GOD BUT ONE.

Keep reading....
It states, in the last line of 1 Cor 8:6 that there is but ONE GOD from whom all things came....
And one Lord, Jesus Christ through Whom all things came....

1. So from whom do all things come?
It would seem to me that the reply has to be from The Father AND our Lord Jesus Christ.
How could this Be?
It seems to shatter your belief.

And that might be because you don't believe in the Trinity.
Or you'd understand the NT completely.
Great. Begin with "There is no God but one..." ... "There is one God the Father..."... "You (The Father) the only true God."

That means there is only a single God known as the Father. The Father in your Trinity is God and the others aren't.
 
And you can't contest it because you have nothing to contest it with in this theology forum. You have opinion and belief, that's all. I have excellent theology.

Christians didn't literally exist before the foundation of the world, then neither did Jesus.

Ephesians 1
4For He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in His presence.

Jesus wasn't literally slain before the creation of the world.

Revelation 13
8All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast—all whose names have not been written in the Lamb’s book of life, the Lamb who was slain from the creation of the world.

There, I disproved it with scripture. Your turn.


Being one with God has nothing to do with deity for the disciples then it has nothing to do with deity for Jesus. That was your premise and it was proven false. Rather than pad with more and more scripture, maybe begin entertaining the idea you got it all wrong.
STATING THAT ANOTHER MEMBER IS WRONG IS AGAINST TOS RULES AND WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED ON THIS FORUM.
PLEASE REFRAIN FROM MAKING PERSONAL STATEMENTS AND REPLY ONLY TO THE TOPIC.
THANKS.

DO NOT REPLY TO THIS POST IN THIS THREAD.

USE TALK WITH STAFF IF NECESSARY.

TOS 1.1, 1.3, 1,5 PLEASE FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THE TOS.
 
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STATING THAT ANOTHER MEMBER IS WRONG IS AGAINST TOS RULES AND WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED ON THIS FORUM.
PLEASE REFRAIN FROM MAKING PERSONAL STATEMENTS AND REPLY ONLY TO THE TOPIC.
THANIKS.

DO NOT REPLY TO THIS POST IN THIS THREAD.

USE TALK WITH STAFF IF NECESSARY.

TOS 1.1, 1.3, 1,5 PLEASE FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THE TOS.
I did not do what you said I did.
 
Jesus said Thomas isn't blessed.
Where? Certainly not here:

Joh 20:29 Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.” (ESV)

Blessed are those who believe and don't see. This is about Thomas requiring material evidence to believe that Jesus was resurrected. Hence why Thomas has always been called a doubter and he was not blessed for this.
Yet, nowhere does Jesus say that Thomas isn't blessed. Look who else didn't believe without evidence:

Luk 24:8 And they remembered his words,
Luk 24:9 and returning from the tomb they told all these things to the eleven and to all the rest.
Luk 24:10 Now it was Mary Magdalene and Joanna and Mary the mother of James and the other women with them who told these things to the apostles,
Luk 24:11 but these words seemed to them an idle tale, and they did not believe them.
Luk 24:12 But Peter rose and ran to the tomb; stooping and looking in, he saw the linen cloths by themselves; and he went home marveling at what had happened. (ESV)

Joh 20:1 Now on the first day of the week Mary Magdalene came to the tomb early, while it was still dark, and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb.
Joh 20:2 So she ran and went to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one whom Jesus loved, and said to them, “They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have laid him.”
Joh 20:3 So Peter went out with the other disciple, and they were going toward the tomb.
Joh 20:4 Both of them were running together, but the other disciple outran Peter and reached the tomb first.
Joh 20:5 And stooping to look in, he saw the linen cloths lying there, but he did not go in.
Joh 20:6 Then Simon Peter came, following him, and went into the tomb. He saw the linen cloths lying there,
Joh 20:7 and the face cloth, which had been on Jesus' head, not lying with the linen cloths but folded up in a place by itself.
Joh 20:8 Then the other disciple, who had reached the tomb first, also went in, and he saw and believed;
Joh 20:9 for as yet they did not understand the Scripture, that he must rise from the dead. (ESV)

All the disciples.

Not so. Jesus came down from heaven.
Exactly. He is the eternal Son of God, or, God the Son, who was the eternally preexistent Word. He existed in intimate relationship with the Father (and the Holy Spirit).

John's gospel begins by saying "he was in the world." This is a reference to earth.
Obviously. I've already explained all of this. It is very straightforward.

The one who was already in the world interacting with humanity is the Father, the only God there is.
As I said before, there is simply no way one can come to such a conclusion by reading John 1:1-18. John 1:10-11 is speaking of Jesus, after his birth. This isn't in chronological order; John is just introducing and explaining Jesus as being the light of the world, which Jesus himself claims to be several times.

Joh 8:12 Again Jesus spoke to them, saying, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will not walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.”

Joh 9:5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”

John temporarily leaves the main chronology behind because he first introduced John the Baptist in verse 6, stating that "He was not the light, but came to bear witness about the light." John simply went on to further explain the light who "was coming into the world" (v. 9), and that then "was in the world." So, there is a "sub-chronology" from verses 6-13, before John returns to talking about the Word becoming flesh.

This is precisely why you won't find a single example of Jesus saying or doing anything in the world, or heaven for that matter, prior to his birth.
As I said before, this remains to be seen but isn't relevant to this discussion, at least at this point.

Your words are "believe Jesus is God to be saved." Your words don't appear in scripture. It's a false gospel. You should be believing Jesus is the Son of God and the Messiah to be saved.
It is strongly implied in Rom 10:9-13, where Paul equates confessing Jesus is Lord with "everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved,” from Joel 2:32. Paul applies that verse to Jesus. Not to mention that Jesus is the central figure of the entire Bible, in whose name alone is salvation. Reason dictates then, that we cannot simply believe Jesus is whoever we want him to be and still think we are saved.

Joh 3:18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God. (ESV)

If Jesus isn't God, then he is just a creature as we are, no different than the lambs and bulls of the OT which were insufficient for permanent atonement, because they were mere creatures. However, because Jesus is God, his sacrifice is infinitely better and secures atonement for all time, without the need for continuing sacrifices. That is all addressed in Hebrews.

Yes it's personified. God isn't simply a word, speech, or divine utterance. That is a characteristic of God. The best translation for this is "What God was the word was" i.e., godly.
That is simply your opinion and it isn't supported by Scripture.

I hold the upper ground here with scripture on my side. I just don't see the need to patiently respond to all of your points if after addressing your flawed premises you still don't understand.
You hold no upper ground. Scripture is definitely not on your side, which is why you dismiss things without addressing them. And, you haven't shown that any premises of mine are flawed.

You simply are not open to Jesus not being God. Am I right?
Of course not. It isn't biblical. There is a reason the deity of Jesus has been the historical, orthodox belief of the Church since the beginning--it's literally written throughout the NT.
 
Your conclusion doesn't follow. Thomas is addressing Jesus only. That he repeated the first person pronoun is for emphasis, not because he is addressing two subjects. There is only one subject, Jesus.

There is also more context that you are not taking into account, even though Thomas's statement does stand on its own. Look at what Thomas first says when 'the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord."'

Joh 20:24 Now Thomas, one of the twelve, called the Twin, was not with them when Jesus came.
Joh 20:25 So the other disciples told him, “We have seen the Lord.” But he said to them, “Unless I see in his hands the mark of the nails, and place my finger into the mark of the nails, and place my hand into his side, I will never believe.” (ESV)

Notice Thomas's demands in verse 25:

1. Unless I see in his hands the mark of the nails,
2. and place my finger into the mark of the nails,
3. and place my hand into his side,
4. I will never believe.

Then:

Joh 20:26 Eight days later, his disciples were inside again, and Thomas was with them. Although the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, “Peace be with you.”
Joh 20:27 Then he said to Thomas, “Put your finger here, and see my hands; and put out your hand, and place it in my side. Do not disbelieve, but believe.” (ESV)

Notice Jesus's response in verse 27:

1. Put your fingers here,
2. see my hands,
3. put out your hand, and place it in my side.
4. Do not disbelieve, but believe.

Jesus directly responds to each of Thomas's demands with commands to do exactly what Thomas stated. This shows the omniscience of Jesus, to which Thomas responds:

Joh 20:28 And Thomas answered and said to Him, My Lord and my God! (LITV)

Note that Thomas "said to Him;" that is what appears in the Greek. He was directly addressing Jesus. More than that though, is Jesus's response:

Joh 20:29 Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.” (ESV)

As I have stated already, Jesus doesn't rebuke Thomas. Instead, Jesus says, "Have you believed because you have seen me?". Believed what? First, that he has risen from the dead, and second, that he is God. It was Thomas's statement--"My Lord and my God"--that was the evidence that Thomas now believed, having come out of his previous unbelief. A lack of rebuke from Jesus for Thomas calling him his God, is proof that Jesus is God.

And, again, this fits perfectly with John 1:1. John beings his gospel by stating that the eternal Word is God, who then takes on human flesh, and ends his gospel with Thomas claiming that the incarnate Word, Jesus, was his God. That is a consistent message throughout John's gospel.

good post
 
Where? Certainly not here:

Joh 20:29 Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.” (ESV)
It follows that if Thomas would not believe until seeing then the converse is true.

Those who have not seen and believed = blessed
Those who have seen and believe = not blessed
Yet, nowhere does Jesus say that Thomas isn't blessed. Look who else didn't believe without evidence:

Luk 24:8 And they remembered his words,
Luk 24:9 and returning from the tomb they told all these things to the eleven and to all the rest.
Luk 24:10 Now it was Mary Magdalene and Joanna and Mary the mother of James and the other women with them who told these things to the apostles,
Luk 24:11 but these words seemed to them an idle tale, and they did not believe them.
Luk 24:12 But Peter rose and ran to the tomb; stooping and looking in, he saw the linen cloths by themselves; and he went home marveling at what had happened. (ESV)

Joh 20:1 Now on the first day of the week Mary Magdalene came to the tomb early, while it was still dark, and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb.
Joh 20:2 So she ran and went to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one whom Jesus loved, and said to them, “They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have laid him.”
Joh 20:3 So Peter went out with the other disciple, and they were going toward the tomb.
Joh 20:4 Both of them were running together, but the other disciple outran Peter and reached the tomb first.
Joh 20:5 And stooping to look in, he saw the linen cloths lying there, but he did not go in.
Joh 20:6 Then Simon Peter came, following him, and went into the tomb. He saw the linen cloths lying there,
Joh 20:7 and the face cloth, which had been on Jesus' head, not lying with the linen cloths but folded up in a place by itself.
Joh 20:8 Then the other disciple, who had reached the tomb first, also went in, and he saw and believed;
Joh 20:9 for as yet they did not understand the Scripture, that he must rise from the dead. (ESV)
John 20:29 Jesus said Thomas isn't blessed.

All the disciples.


Exactly. He is the eternal Son of God, or, God the Son, who was the eternally preexistent Word. He existed in intimate relationship with the Father (and the Holy Spirit).
Son of God does not mean God the son. Please quote the words God the Son anywhere in the Bible.
As I said before, there is simply no way one can come to such a conclusion by reading John 1:1-18. John 1:10-11 is speaking of Jesus, after his birth. This isn't in chronological order; John is just introducing and explaining Jesus as being the light of the world, which Jesus himself claims to be several times.
Then where was Jesus before his birth and what was he doing? Any examples? Any quotes?

Joh 8:12 Again Jesus spoke to them, saying, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will not walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.”

Joh 9:5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”

John temporarily leaves the main chronology behind because he first introduced John the Baptist in verse 6, stating that "He was not the light, but came to bear witness about the light." John simply went on to further explain the light who "was coming into the world" (v. 9), and that then "was in the world." So, there is a "sub-chronology" from verses 6-13, before John returns to talking about the Word becoming flesh.
That's not what this is about. Jesus told his disciples in Matt 5:14 "You are the light of the world."

Having light refers to the the light that was given to people by God. The true light gives light to people in the world.

This, of course, refers to the Father being the one within whom there is no darkness. God is light.

1 John 1
5And this is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you: God is light, and in Him there is no darkness at all.
It is strongly implied in Rom 10:9-13, where Paul equates confessing Jesus is Lord with "everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved,” from Joel 2:32. Paul applies that verse to Jesus. Not to mention that Jesus is the central figure of the entire Bible, in whose name alone is salvation. Reason dictates then, that we cannot simply believe Jesus is whoever we want him to be and still think we are saved.
Everyone who calls on the name of the "Lord" is a reference to YHWH. This is not saying Jesus is God. Psalm 110:1 clearly shows the "LORD" and the "Lord" are not the same person.

Joh 3:18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God. (ESV)

If Jesus isn't God, then he is just a creature as we are, no different than the lambs and bulls of the OT which were insufficient for permanent atonement, because they were mere creatures. However, because Jesus is God, his sacrifice is infinitely better and secures atonement for all time, without the need for continuing sacrifices. That is all addressed in Hebrews.
According to scripture Jesus is sufficient because he didn't sin. He never sinned and his soul was made an offering for sin. God's soul being sacrificed isn't a Biblical idea.

Isaiaih 53
10Yet it was the will of the LORD to crush him;
he has put him to grief;
when his soul makes an offering for guilt,
he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days;
the will of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
11Out of the anguish of his soul he shall see and be satisfied;
by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous,
and he shall bear their iniquities.
12Therefore I will divide him a portion with the many,
and he shall divide the spoil with the strong,
because he poured out his soul to death
and was numbered with the transgressors;
yet he bore the sin of many,
and makes intercession for the transgressors.
That is simply your opinion and it isn't supported by Scripture.
Then why is the logos an "it" in 1 John 1:1,2
You hold no upper ground. Scripture is definitely not on your side, which is why you dismiss things without addressing them. And, you haven't shown that any premises of mine are flawed.
That would be a false accusation since I clearly told you why I dismiss things. It's not as you say.

Of course not. It isn't biblical. There is a reason the deity of Jesus has been the historical, orthodox belief of the Church since the beginning--it's literally written throughout the NT.
It isn't in the Bible then it wasn't at the beginning.
 
Great. Begin with "There is no God but one..." ... "There is one God the Father..."... "You (The Father) the only true God."

That means there is only a single God known as the Father. The Father in your Trinity is God and the others aren't.
RM, as I've stated, you have a problem with the above because you don't believe in the Trinity.
Are the JWs Christian?
They also do not believe in the Trinity.

John 1:4
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us.
John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 8:58
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”
John 10:30
I and the Father are one.”
Hebrews 1:10

“YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH,
AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS;

Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.


Immanuel means GOD WITH US.
Are you going to even read the above?
How do you explain all those verses?
 
It follows that if Thomas would not believe until seeing then the converse is true.

Those who have not seen and believed = blessed
Those who have seen and believe = not blessed
Your conclusion doesn't follow; it's a false dichotomy. It could very well be that people who have seen and believed are still blessed, and that those who believe without seeing are, in some way, more blessed. Remember, all the disciples didn't believe until they saw the evidence, but nowhere does it say they weren't blessed. Because they weren't and that is not what Jesus is saying to Thomas.

John 20:29 Jesus said Thomas isn't blessed.
No, nowhere does Jesus say that.

Son of God does not mean God the son.
It does. Even the Jews understood this:

Joh 5:16 And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath.
Joh 5:17 But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working.”
Joh 5:18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God. (ESV)

Joh 10:28 I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand.
Joh 10:29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand.
Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.
Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—
Joh 10:36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God?
Joh 10:37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me;
Joh 10:38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” (ESV)

The Jews understood the claim of being the Son of God--it was to make "himself equal with God," which is essentially to "make [him]self God." It's both in the claim to be the Son of God and in the fact that he is doing the same works the Father does, particularly on the Sabbath.

Please quote the words God the Son anywhere in the Bible.
I didn't say they appear anywhere in the Bible; and they don't need to. You said the disciples all believed in a Unitarian God, so perhaps you can show me where "unitarian" appears in the Bible. Do you see the problem with that reasoning?

Then where was Jesus before his birth and what was he doing? Any examples? Any quotes?
There are some suggested theophanies in the OT where the Son may have manifested but, like I said, it isn't relevant to this discussion.

That's not what this is about. Jesus told his disciples in Matt 5:14 "You are the light of the world."
It's exactly what this is about. John clearly says that the true light was coming into the world, and Jesus claims more than once to be that light. He is the light, which spreads to those who trust in and follow him. You can't just pull things out of context.

Having light refers to the the light that was given to people by God. The true light gives light to people in the world.

This, of course, refers to the Father being the one within whom there is no darkness. God is light.
You're fallaciously begging the question and ignoring context. Jesus claimed to be the light. That simply cannot be denied. Did Jesus claim to be the truth?

1 John 1
5And this is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you: God is light, and in Him there is no darkness at all.
Yes.

Everyone who calls on the name of the "Lord" is a reference to YHWH. This is not saying Jesus is God. Psalm 110:1 clearly shows the "LORD" and the "Lord" are not the same person.
Of course it is a reference to YHWH. That is the whole point! How can you so clearly miss the obvious? Paul applies a verse about YHWH to Jesus, showing that to confess Jesus is Lord was to call on the name of YHWH.

According to scripture Jesus is sufficient because he didn't sin. He never sinned and his soul was made an offering for sin.
Which is no different than lambs and bulls that had to be without blemish. While they prefigure Christ and his sacrifice, being creatures they were insufficient. Jesus cannot be a mere creature and be sufficient.

God's soul being sacrificed isn't a Biblical idea.

Isaiaih 53
10Yet it was the will of the LORD to crush him;
he has put him to grief;
when his soul makes an offering for guilt,
he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days;
the will of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
11Out of the anguish of his soul he shall see and be satisfied;
by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous,
and he shall bear their iniquities.
12Therefore I will divide him a portion with the many,
and he shall divide the spoil with the strong,
because he poured out his soul to death
and was numbered with the transgressors;
yet he bore the sin of many,
and makes intercession for the transgressors.
Jesus was both man and God.

Then why is the logos an "it" in 1 John 1:1,2
It isn't. The word "it" is added in by translators. Here is a more accurate translation:

1Jn 1:2 and the life was manifested, and we have seen and testify and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us— (NASB)

That would be a false accusation since I clearly told you why I dismiss things. It's not as you say.
It is. You have left much unaddressed. Would you like me to list the posts where you have left things unaddressed? I've done it more than once before to show others the same when they didn't believe me.

It isn't in the Bible then it wasn't at the beginning.
I don't understand what you're saying here.
 
Your conclusion doesn't follow; it's a false dichotomy. It could very well be that people who have seen and believed are still blessed, and that those who believe without seeing are, in some way, more blessed. Remember, all the disciples didn't believe until they saw the evidence, but nowhere does it say they weren't blessed. Because they weren't and that is not what Jesus is saying to Thomas.


No, nowhere does Jesus say that.


It does. Even the Jews understood this:

Joh 5:16 And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath.
Joh 5:17 But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working.”
Joh 5:18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God. (ESV)

Joh 10:28 I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand.
Joh 10:29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand.
Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.
Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—
Joh 10:36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God?
Joh 10:37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me;
Joh 10:38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” (ESV)

The Jews understood the claim of being the Son of God--it was to make "himself equal with God," which is essentially to "make [him]self God." It's both in the claim to be the Son of God and in the fact that he is doing the same works the Father does, particularly on the Sabbath.


I didn't say they appear anywhere in the Bible; and they don't need to. You said the disciples all believed in a Unitarian God, so perhaps you can show me where "unitarian" appears in the Bible. Do you see the problem with that reasoning?


There are some suggested theophanies in the OT where the Son may have manifested but, like I said, it isn't relevant to this discussion.


It's exactly what this is about. John clearly says that the true light was coming into the world, and Jesus claims more than once to be that light. He is the light, which spreads to those who trust in and follow him. You can't just pull things out of context.


You're fallaciously begging the question and ignoring context. Jesus claimed to be the light. That simply cannot be denied. Did Jesus claim to be the truth?


Yes.


Of course it is a reference to YHWH. That is the whole point! How can you so clearly miss the obvious? Paul applies a verse about YHWH to Jesus, showing that to confess Jesus is Lord was to call on the name of YHWH.


Which is no different than lambs and bulls that had to be without blemish. While they prefigure Christ and his sacrifice, being creatures they were insufficient. Jesus cannot be a mere creature and be sufficient.


Jesus was both man and God.


It isn't. The word "it" is added in by translators. Here is a more accurate translation:

1Jn 1:2 and the life was manifested, and we have seen and testify and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us— (NASB)


It is. You have left much unaddressed. Would you like me to list the posts where you have left things unaddressed? I've done it more than once before to show others the same when they didn't believe me.


I don't understand what you're saying here.
I think we often forget to mention that there was a reason Jesus didn't blatantly say He was God.
The reason is because He would have been killed as soon as He began His ministry and, of course, Jesus wanted to fulfill His mission on earth. It was not only to save mankind through His sacrifice, but He also had many things to teach the Apostles so that they could pass on the teachings of the Kingdom here on earth.

When Jesus went into Jerusalem the year He was crucified, the 3rd year of His ministry (really the 4th), He was more willing to admit who He was.

And during His "trial" He admitted to being God.
This is why He was crucified.
 
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