The word of Life is a that which, an it.
1 John 1
1That which was from the beginning,
which we have heard,
which we have seen with our own eyes,
which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—
this is the Word of life. 2And
this is the life that was revealed; we have seen
it and testified to
it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with the Father and was revealed to us.
First, as I stated, "it" isn't actually in the Greek text in verse 2; it's added by some translators. Second, the Word of life is most likely an indirect reference to Jesus, "meaning something
relating to the person and revelation of Christ. . . . The successive clauses,
that which was from the beginning, etc., express, not the
Eternal Word Himself, but something
relating to or
predicated concerning (περί) Him. The indefinite
that which, is approximately defined by these clauses; that about the Word of Life which was from the beginning, that which appealed to sight, to hearing is, to touch" (M. R. Vincent).
Or, read Albert Barnes's thoughts on verse 1:
'The apostle, in speaking of “that which was from the beginning,” uses a word in the neuter gender instead of the masculine, (ὅ ho.) It is not to be supposed, I think, that he meant to apply this term “directly” to the Son of God, for if he had he would have used the masculine pronoun; but though he had the Son of God in view, and meant to make a strong affirmation respecting him, yet the particular thing here referred to was “whatever” there was respecting that incarnate Saviour that furnished testimony to any of the senses, or that pertained to his character and doctrine, he had borne witness to.
He was looking rather at the evidence that he was incarnate; the proofs that he was manifested; and he says that those proofs had been subjected to the trial of the senses, and he had borne witness to them, and now did it again. This is what is referred to, it seems to me, by the phrase “that which,” (ὅ ho.) The sense may be this: “Whatever there was respecting the Word of life, or him who is the living Word, the incarnate Son of God, from the very beginning, from the time when he was first manifested in the flesh; whatever there was respecting his exalted nature, his dignity, his character, that could be subjected to the testimony of the senses, to be the object of sight, or hearing, or touch, that I was permitted to see, and that I declare to you respecting him.” John claims to be a competent witness in reference to everything which occurred as a manifestation of what the Son of God was.'
Wuest states in his Word Studies in the Greek New Testament:
"John begins his letter with a relative pronoun in the neuter gender, "that which." The reference is to things relating to the Lord Jesus. We are not to understand the expression as equivalent to "He who." The preposition "of" in the expression "of the Word of life" is
peri, "concerning." This speaks of the things concerning our Lord, rather than of Him personally." (vol. 2, p. 87)
Here is Wuest's translation of those two verses:
"1Jn 1:1 (1-2) That which was from the beginning, that which we have heard with the present result that it is ringing in our ears, that which we have discerningly seen with our eyes with the present result that it is in our mind's eye, that which we gazed upon as a spectacle, and our hands handled with a view to investigation, that which is concerning the Word of the life and this aforementioned life was made visible, and we have seen it with discernment and have it in our mind's eye, and are bearing witness and bringing back to you a message concerning the life, the eternal life, which is of such a nature as to have been in fellowship with the Father and was made visible to us."
It is incorrect to assume that because John uses a neuter gender that "the Word of life" himself is an "it."
When God become man, yes:
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men.
...
Joh 1:9 The true light, which gives light to everyone, was coming into the world.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him.
Joh 1:11 He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him.
Joh 1:12 But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God,
Joh 1:13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. (ESV)
Php 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,
Php 2:6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,
Php 2:7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.
Php 2:8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. (ESV)
No to mention that just as Jesus claimed to be the light of the world, he also claimed to be "the life":
Joh 14:6 Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. (ESV)
Then Luke affirms t
Act 3:15 and you killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this we are witnesses. (ESV)
Not at the moment, it takes time.
I'm saying that the Bible pre-dates your theology about Jesus being God. You're trying to use the Bible to prove something that isn't even stated.
No, that Jesus is God is based entirely on the Bible. No one would believe it, or still believe it, if it wasn't. Again, it would help if you actually addressed everything I post instead of dismissing it out of hand. I'm not making long posts for fun or for people to be so disrespectful by dismissing them with hardly a word.
What you believe came later on as different sects began creating their own doctrines.
Evidence please.
Ever wonder why so many of the writings from people who misunderstood Jesus to be God never made it into the Bible?
Evidence please.
Why the Bible never says so explicitly what they said? It's because when the Bible was being canonized those writings were rejected as rank heresy.
Evidence please.