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Drew said:
But my point is that if a fully conscious, thinking, communicating, aware entitly survives physical death, this creates the following problems in the immediate context we are talking about (as well as creating many other problems as well):

1. It denies Scriptural statements that the dead, including the unredeemed dead, sleep (example: Daniel 12:2). Sleep does not entail full consciousness.

2. It denies the very strong implications that, if there is a second death as testified to as follows, then there, of course, has to be a first death. And for that first death to be in any sense true to the "cessation of life functions" implication of the word "death", the first death really cannot entail the full conscious state that people are committing to when they claim that the rich man is in torment in flames at this very moment.:

Revelation 2:11
He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; He that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death.

Revelation 20:6
Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

Revelation 20:14
And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.

Revelation 21:8
But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.
And back at you:

1. You must deny the story of Lazarus and the Rich Man, Paul's statements that to be with the Lord is to be out of the body, and Jesus' statement to the theif on the cross - "Today you shall be with me in paradise." You would also have to deny Jesus' statements regarding varying punishment.

2. The two deaths are distinguished, by the very verses you give and are therefore, not the same. And you admit this - the second death is annihilation, the first is not. So it really is no stretch to say that the first death is merely physical while the second is much more. I believe that Luke 12:4-5 supports this idea.

I cannot help but notice that you didn't use Rev. 20:14-15:

Rev 20:14 Then Death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. This is the second death, the lake of fire.
Rev 20:15 And if anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.

So to you, the first death is a cessation of all things pertaining to an individual's life. But this death is then thrown into the lake of fire. One could argue that death itself then has been destroyed and one can no longer die, the second death being a spiritual death, a separation from God (a nuance of "death" as found in Scriputre). You might argue that everything will merely be destroyed, annihilated, in the lake of fire. But then one must not only question why God would raise people only to destroy them but why destroy them at all since that isn't punishment.

I think that is one of the stronger philosophical arguments against annihilationism - it isn't punishment at all, it is merely non-existence.

I beg your pardon if any of this has been discussed already in my absence.
 
Free said:
1. You must deny the story of Lazarus and the Rich Man, Paul's statements that to be with the Lord is to be out of the body, and Jesus' statement to the theif on the cross - "Today you shall be with me in paradise." You would also have to deny Jesus' statements regarding varying punishment.
I certainly do deny that the story of the rich man and Lazarus is an historical account. To take it as a literal account forces all kinds of completely over the top reworkings of other Biblical teachings. Just one of these is the clear statement in 1 Corinthians 15 that we are "made alive" at Jesus' return.

I still have seen no rejoinder to the compelling argument that someone who is already fully alive, conscious, sentient, thinking, communicating etc. (such as Lazarus from the Luke 16 story) can hardly be made any more alive. Free, please tell me - how is Lazuarus to be "made alive" if he is already in the condition that he is in as described in the Luke 16 account?

Regarding the statement to the thief on the cross:

1. We know from Jesus' statement in John 20 that Jesus had not yet returned to the Father on the actual day He was crucified - 3 days after crucifixion, He states that He has not yet returned to the Father.

2. We therefore know that Jesus' statement to the thief could not have been meant to suggest that the thief would in "paradise" on the very day of the crucifixion. Paradise is only mentioned in 2 places outside of this brief reference in Luke: 2Cor 12 and Rev 2. We are told that Paradise is where the Tree of Life is -- and the Tree of Life is where the Throne of God is (In Rev 2 and in Rev 22). So if Jesus had not acended to the Father, he had not been to Paradise, because Paradise is where the Father is.

3. Since we know the thief died on the day he was crucified, we can be sure that he (the thief) did not go straight from the cross to a state of conscious existence in Paradise.

As for Paul's statement that he would rather be "absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord", this works perfectly with the position that the redeemed sleep until the future resurrection. From Paul's perspective as a subject of experience, he will indeed experience an instant transition from the body to the Lord's presence, even if he factually rests in the grave for several thousand years. I see no reason to discount this "phenomenological" reading.

I would much rather stand by this admittedly non-literal take on 2 Cor 5:8 then to have to say that being "made alive" as per 1 Cor 15 is to have a "fully sentient, fully conscious, fully thinking, already-in-Lord's-presence" soul simply wrapped in a flesh cloak. I am entirely convinced that people simply are not willing to see how incoherent this notion is. They argue that the 1 Cor 15 text about being made alive refers to the resurrection of the body to join the soul. And yet, by the terms of their own argument, a fully conscious soul has been in Jesus' presence for thousands of years.

Being in a fully conscious communicative state in the presence of Jesus is not life?

No one has denied varying degrees of punishment. In the process of annihilation by hell-fire, varying degrees of punishment will be visited.

I hope to respond to your other points ASAP.
 
Drew wrote:
I certainly do deny that the story of the rich man and Lazarus is an historical account.

Hi Drew,

Whether you view the Lazarus account as a parable, metaphor or as a historical account- if Lazarus is annihilated - then he won't be saying anything and no warning will be forthcoming.

However, if we set aside the 'physical' as having come first ie first comes the physical then the spiritual, then I think Lazarus' suffering though described as physical - begins to take on spiritual dimensions.

We have not yet exhausted the principle 'first comes the physical then the spiritual.' The 'spiritual' cannot, in my opinion be destroyed by physical means, for this reason I stated that Satan and the demons, which are spiritual entities - have not been annihilated - but will be 'contained' or better still restrained at the end of the age. While you pointed out that they were not men - rightly so - but would you deny that man has a spiritual aspect to his essential being? The claim I make is that man is primarily a spiritual being whether redeemed or not- the difference is in the nature of the nature of which he partakes. At the end of the age - the nature of which man partakes will still exist - both sides of the divide - for this reason I think that annihilation does not do justice to the Christian world view. Man in heaven or hell still remains a dependant being.

This dependency which continues after this life is something that your views do not accommodate - could it be that humanism - which rejects hell - is more formative in your world view than you would have us believe?
After all am I hearing the same objections from you as I hear from the atheist? While I don't consider you to be an atheist - I do suspect that you are a humanist at the sub - conscious level. The Gospel of Christ as I have have come to know it is offensive to humanist thought - have you inadvertently sought to remove this offensive aspect of the Gospel - to make it more acceptable to this world?

First comes the physical then the spiritual - I see that the two are inextricably linked!
 
Free said:
The two deaths are distinguished, by the very verses you give and are therefore, not the same. And you admit this - the second death is annihilation, the first is not.
Of course, I agree.

Free said:
So it really is no stretch to say that the first death is merely physical while the second is much more. I believe that Luke 12:4-5 supports this idea.
It is indeed a stretch, precisely because it does such violence to the meaning of the word "death".

My view about the "first death" admittedly does involve a small departure from the nominal sense of "death". Why? Because on my view, the first death is not the "end of the story" as true death would be understood to be, although it is otherwise true to the nominal sense of "death", having the absence of consciousness and all self-awareness that would be normally be implied by the word "death".

However the view that death = "full conscious existence with only the loss of a physical shell" veritably pounds the nominal sense of the word "death" into a pasty mess that is beyond recognition. Death, to we humans, is all about loss of conscious experiences of the world, not about the status of the "house" in which that consciousness dwells (to use a dualist view that I reject, by the way).

If Fred's consciousness were somehow pried free of his body (again using the dualist conception that you guys embrace) and he could fly around the Universe and commune with Jesus, having lost only his body, would we consider Fred to be dead? Hardly. In fact we would consider him to much more alive than we who are constrained from such freedoms by this earthly mantle of flesh.

As for Luke 12:4-5, I cannot emphasize enough how this verse is entirely consistent with the view that I am defending here. The only reason that it is held to preferentially support the "immortal soul" position is that people bring this dualist conception to the text.

Here is Luke 12:4-5

I tell you, my friends, do not be afraid of those who kill the body and after that can do no more. But I will show you whom you should fear: Fear him who, after the killing of the body, has power to throw you into hell. Yes, I tell you, fear him

This text works in no way supports the notion that the first death is merely physical. It is consistent with such a view, but that accomplishes nothing because it is equally consistent with the view that I am advocating for.

Some of us have been saying, the "soul / spirit" is not an immortal "thing" but rather a descriptive term variously used to refer to the "life spark", or the "breath of God" that animates us. To quote guibox:

guibox said:
The term 'soul' was used to describe man as a functioning being both spiritually and cognitively. It was not a separate existence of a 'soul' that makes man a 'nephesh', it is the Hebrew anthropological way of describing what we now know as brain function, synapses, feelings and emotions.

With this in mind, lets proceed. If man kills the body, God can still resurrect that person, because God "knows" who that person was (before they were killed) and can certainly reconstitute him at the time of the general resurrection by re-animating the person - by using knowledge of the essence of who that person was, knowledge of his thoughts, feeling, and memories.

In fact, I suggest (I just had this thought) that this process parallels what we read in Genesis 2 - God "breathed into his nostrils the breath of life". When the redeemed die, we sleep, but we "live on" in the mind of God, awaiting the re-animation when God calls us forth from the grave. I would deign to suggest that this "remembering in anticipation of re-animation" is what Job is referring to in Job 14 when he writes:

If only you would hide me in the grave
and conceal me till your anger has passed!
If only you would set me a time
and then remember me


The overall point in relation to Luke 12: man can only kill the body, he cannot "erase" the "life-spark" information that God holds about that person.

God, on the other hand, can indeed utterly do away with a person, by electing to "erase" or "blot out" that person in his / her totality - by doing away with both body and "soul". On this view, the destruction of the soul is God's judgement that the wages of sin is indeed death (non-existence) as His word clearly teaches in Romans 6:23 and elsewhere. God does away with that person by erasing the "life-spark" information along with the body - the Luke text abive works perfectly well with this.

The problem with the "traditional" conceptualization, on the other hand, is that it requires a dramatic re-interpretation of the meaning of the word "destroy" as per Matthew 10 ,where we are told that the soul is destroyed in hell. Again, we need to let Scripture interpret Scripture, the Luke text does not refer to destruction of the soul in hell, leaving the "eternal torment" postion at least provisionally open. Matthew 10, however, closes the door on that possibility.

Unless of course, one wants to re-define destroy to mean to "preserve eternally". If one is willing to do this, any position can be justified

How does a "destroyed" soul continue on in conscious torment? This is overly awkward. On the other hand, the view that I have expressed does indeed honour the sense that we normally accord to the word "destroy".
 
Free said:
One could argue that death itself then has been destroyed and one can no longer die, the second death being a spiritual death, a separation from God (a nuance of "death" as found in Scriputre).
I see no evidence in the Scriptures of any "nuance" that death = separation from God with full conscious experience. I submit that this notion has taken hold in the Christian community and is rarely examined critically. I do not think the Scriptures support it. In fact, I think they rather clearly teach, directly and without nuance, that the end of the wicked is non-existence. This is done through the very clear means of likening the fate of the unredeemed to well-known "in your face" physical processes that clearly result in annihilation - burning of trees in a fire, buring of chaff in a fire, burning of animal fat in a fire, etc.

Free said:
You might argue that everything will merely be destroyed, annihilated, in the lake of fire. But then one must not only question why God would raise people only to destroy them but why destroy them at all since that isn't punishment.

I think that is one of the stronger philosophical arguments against annihilationism - it isn't punishment at all, it is merely non-existence.
Not punishment? Being placed into a lake of fire and having the experience of being burned away to nothing is not exactly a picnic in the park.
 
guibox said:
jg, jg, jg, jg...

You can't have your cake and eat it too.

OK, Gui

Lets take a quick look here....at what you believe...If I am wrong please correct me so that I will correct my statement...

1) You believe that those who have accepted Jesus Christ as Lord and SAVIOUR will inherit ''eternal life''...Live with Christ forever....

2) You believe that those who do not accept Christ as Lord and saviour will eventually be annihalated.....

Is this not having your cake and eating it to?
 
stranger said:
Hi Drew,

Whether you view the Lazarus account as a parable, metaphor or as a historical account- if Lazarus is annihilated - then he won't be saying anything and no warning will be forthcoming.

However, if we set aside the 'physical' as having come first ie first comes the physical then the spiritual, then I think Lazarus' suffering though described as physical - begins to take on spiritual dimensions.

We have not yet exhausted the principle 'first comes the physical then the spiritual.' The 'spiritual' cannot, in my opinion be destroyed by physical means, for this reason I stated that Satan and the demons, which are spiritual entities - have not been annihilated - but will be 'contained' or better still restrained at the end of the age. While you pointed out that they were not men - rightly so - but would you deny that man has a spiritual aspect to his essential being? The claim I make is that man is primarily a spiritual being whether redeemed or not- the difference is in the nature of the nature of which he partakes. At the end of the age - the nature of which man partakes will still exist - both sides of the divide - for this reason I think that annihilation does not do justice to the Christian world view. Man in heaven or hell still remains a dependant being.

This dependency which continues after this life is something that your views do not accommodate - could it be that humanism - which rejects hell - is more formative in your world view than you would have us believe?
After all am I hearing the same objections from you as I hear from the atheist? While I don't consider you to be an atheist - I do suspect that you are a humanist at the sub - conscious level. The Gospel of Christ as I have have come to know it is offensive to humanist thought - have you inadvertently sought to remove this offensive aspect of the Gospel - to make it more acceptable to this world?

First comes the physical then the spiritual - I see that the two are inextricably linked!

Stranger
This is a great post !!!!!!! and it feels go that I learned somethings from it...
Bless you brother....
 
stranger said:
Whether you view the Lazarus account as a parable, metaphor or as a historical account- if Lazarus is annihilated - then he won't be saying anything and no warning will be forthcoming.
I noticed that jg bolded this material in his comment as though it were some kind of argument against the annihilation position. It is not, however.

The essence of the argument implied by the above statement is that even if the Luke 16 account is deemed to be a parable, this backfires on the annihilation position since an annihilated rich man cannot issue a warning. But the whole parable depends on at least the possibility of the issuance of such a warning. Therefore, the rich man cannot be annihilated and the annihilation position has to be wrong.

Let's say that we are all presented with some kind of hypothetical Biblical account where a dog is described as speaking English to someone giving them the message "do not ignore the prophets". Let's say that I claim that dogs cannot really speak English and that the story is obviously a parable whose purpose is to communicate the need to listen to the prophets.

You then respond "But, Drew, your parable reading does not work, since by your belief that dogs don't speak english, the dog in the parable cannot communicate the important message about listening to the prophets. And he (the dog) needs to at least have the possibility of doing so in order for the warning to be expressed. Therefore, if the meaning of parable that you (Drew) ascribe to it is correct, dogs actually need to be able to speak english".

I hope that I do not need to explain what is wrong with this line of reasoning.

Do you think this analogy is unfair since we all know that dogs don't speak english? Well I am going to claim that just like we know dogs don't speak english, we know from the scriptures that the unredeemed are annihilated. There is no problem of logic with seeing the Luke 16 as a parable and yet maintaining that, in reality, the rich man is annihilated.

Stranger: Have I captured the essence of the objection that is implied in your quote? If not, please clarify
 
stranger said:
However, if we set aside the 'physical' as having come first ie first comes the physical then the spiritual, then I think Lazarus' suffering though described as physical - begins to take on spiritual dimensions.

We have not yet exhausted the principle 'first comes the physical then the spiritual.' The 'spiritual' cannot, in my opinion be destroyed by physical means, for this reason I stated that Satan and the demons, which are spiritual entities - have not been annihilated - but will be 'contained' or better still restrained at the end of the age. While you pointed out that they were not men - rightly so - but would you deny that man has a spiritual aspect to his essential being? The claim I make is that man is primarily a spiritual being whether redeemed or not- the difference is in the nature of the nature of which he partakes. At the end of the age - the nature of which man partakes will still exist - both sides of the divide - for this reason I think that annihilation does not do justice to the Christian world view. Man in heaven or hell still remains a dependant being.
Regarding your question: Would you deny that man has a spiritual aspect to his essential being?. How could I deny the Scriptures that clearly refer to the "spiritual" dimension of the human person? I most emphatically do not deny this.

What I do deny is the very specific conclusion that having a spiritual aspect means having an immortal consciousness bearing soul / spirit. I think it is hard for people to see how this conclusion can be avoided, but I think that they may not realize how steeped they are in a particular worldview - the worldview of Greek dualism. I submit that for these people the dualist conceptualization is like a pair of eyeglasses through which the world is viewed. They have difficulty stepping back and considering this dualistic conceptualization as something to be looked at, and looked at critically.

I am not sure how to address this portion of your post. I will say that I think the Scriptures teach that man is an indivisible entity - the spiritual part of him cannot really be teased apart from the non-spirtual part of him. And over and above the Scriptures, it appears to be the case from "historical" arguments that the Hebrews did not have this conceptualization. Heavily influenced by Greek thinking we have it, but it seems the people who wrote the Scriptures did not.
 
stranger said:
.....could it be that humanism - which rejects hell - is more formative in your world view than you would have us believe?
After all am I hearing the same objections from you as I hear from the atheist? While I don't consider you to be an atheist - I do suspect that you are a humanist at the sub - conscious level. The Gospel of Christ as I have have come to know it is offensive to humanist thought - have you inadvertently sought to remove this offensive aspect of the Gospel - to make it more acceptable to this world?
I do not know many atheists who believe that the unredeemed are called forth from the sleep of death and subjected to consciously experienced destruction by hell-fire. This is what I believe. This is hardly a humanist world view. In any event, I will say that I go where the Scriptures lead.

Up until about a year ago (maybe a little bit more), I held the "traditional" view. I then realized that this was a view that had been blindly accepted by me. When I chose to see what the Scriptures have to teach about this matter, I came to conclude that the ultimate end of the unredeemed is annihilation and that there is no immortal consciousness bearing soul / spirit.
 
stranger said:
Whether you view the Lazarus account as a parable, metaphor or as a historical account- if Lazarus is annihilated - then he won't be saying anything and no warning will be forthcoming.
Unless the parable is not at all attempting to teach about death or life after death or annihilation, which it’s not as previously shown on occasion by guibox and SputnikBoy.

We have not yet exhausted the principle 'first comes the physical then the spiritual.' The 'spiritual' cannot, in my opinion be destroyed by physical means,
How about by spiritual means? God being spirit, I am sure He can think of plenty of ways to spiritually annihilate them. But I cannot see your reasoning here, if physical hell can torture spiritual senses then how come they are immune to destruction from it?

The claim I make is that man is primarily a spiritual being whether redeemed or not
And this is a presumption that is brought to the table by the eternal torture proponent. guibox, CP_Mike, Drew and others have made numerous attempts with wealth of scriptural support at clarifying the Hebrew thought of man in a wholistic view regarding this.

Man in heaven or hell still remains a dependant being.
What is the dependence that you are talking about? If God, how does eternal dependence in hell reconcile eternal separation from God?

After all am I hearing the same objections from you as I hear from the atheist?
The same objections to annihilation can be heard from a hindu who holds to reincarnations of the immortal-soul, but that will not be the basis for me to not consider your personal argument if it is sound regardless of it matching a pagan view.

First comes the physical then the spiritual - I see that the two are inextricably linked!
Fine, lets take the above. Does Paul say the wicked put on this incorruptible? Do the wicked change and put on the spiritual in the twinkling of an eye? Then where is the “spiritual incorruptible†that you say that the wicked will also posses come from?
 
stranger said:
The claim I make is that man is primarily a spiritual being whether redeemed or not

First comes the physical then the spiritual

The above two views seem somewhat to contradict. May be you can clarify. If man is primarily spiritual then he is living now as a spiritual being only clothed in a physical body. Then your second statement should be false because it should be, “first comes spiritual in physical and then the spiritual.â€Â

Let me give you an analogy:
Think your fleshly body as the immortal soul.
Think the clothes you wore as your fleshly body.

Now the clothes by themselves are not “livingâ€Â. Even though you are walking around in your clothes no one will say that your clothes have life but the fleshly body that is fitting this clothing. So to even say that first comes the clothes then the physical body, it wouldn’t make sense because the physical body was what was animating the clothes in the first place.

So if the spirit is what is animating this physical body you cannot say that the spiritual body is not alive now! And your statement first physical becomes false because first is “spiritual in physical†then “spiritual all by itselfââ¬Â. Scriptures do not teach this.
 
Drew said:
The essence of the argument implied by the above statement is that even if the Luke 16 account is deemed to be a parable, this backfires on the annihilation position since an annihilated rich man cannot issue a warning. But the whole parable depends on at least the possibility of the issuance of such a warning. Therefore, the rich man cannot be annihilated and the annihilation position has to be wrong.

Basically, yes the annihilated offer nothing let alone warning of their 'thirst'.

[quote:7f94d]Let's say that we are all presented with some kind of hypothetical Biblical account where a dog is described as speaking English to someone giving them the message "do not ignore the prophets". Let's say that I claim that dogs cannot really speak English and that the story is obviously a parable whose purpose is to communicate the need to listen to the prophets.

I disallow this parable but if you were to use Balaam's donkey then that at least is found in scripture, or perhaps the serpent speaking to Eve. So I would not venture to set out arguments on this basis - Lazarus (the rich man) and the poor man were people whose types are with us to the end of the age. The poor you will have with you. . .


You then respond "But, Drew, your parable reading does not work, since by your belief that dogs don't speak english, the dog in the parable cannot communicate the important message about listening to the prophets. And he (the dog) needs to at least have the possibility of doing so in order for the warning to be expressed. Therefore, if the meaning of parable that you (Drew) ascribe to it is correct, dogs actually need to be able to speak english".

see above comment. Again if you would change your illustration . . to dogs eating crumbs that fall of the table. . .


I hope that I do not need to explain what is wrong with this line of reasoning.

Do you think this analogy is unfair since we all know that dogs don't speak english? Well I am going to claim that just like we know dogs don't speak english, we know from the scriptures that the unredeemed are annihilated. There is no problem of logic with seeing the Luke 16 as a parable and yet maintaining that, in reality, the rich man is annihilated.

Stranger: Have I captured the essence of the objection that is implied in your quote? If not, please clarify
[/quote:7f94d]

The point I made was that it doesn't matter how 'you' interpret it - Lazarus issues a warning. If he is annihilated then he can issue no such warning. The case in point is not about whether a man can speak in a parable - we know that the scenario of beggars is with us today - though not as prominent in affluent western cultures.
 
Drew wrote. . .

What I do deny is the very specific conclusion that having a spiritual aspect means having an immortal consciousness bearing soul / spirit. I think it is hard for people to see how this conclusion can be avoided, but I think that they may not realize how steeped they are in a particular worldview - the worldview of Greek dualism. I submit that for these people the dualist conceptualization is like a pair of eyeglasses through which the world is viewed. They have difficulty stepping back and considering this dualistic conceptualization as something to be looked at, and looked at critically.

I am not sure how to address this portion of your post. I will say that I think the Scriptures teach that man is an indivisible entity - the spiritual part of him cannot really be teased apart from the non-spirtual part of him. And over and above the Scriptures, it appears to be the case from "historical" arguments that the Hebrews did not have this conceptualization. Heavily influenced by Greek thinking we have it, but it seems the people who wrote the Scriptures did not.

In the parable there is the rich man and the poor man. As previously pointed out the writers of the NT were Hebrews and they did not suffer the loss of a Hebrew world view because of the prominence of Greek at the time. Heaven and hell, rich and poor, light and dark, work and rest. . . scripture is full of these contrasts. . . . So much so that this shapes the Christian reasoning. . . and knowing derivative of such contrast is very unattractive to those who only believe only in the possibility of shades of grey.
 
Drew said:
I do not know many atheists who believe that the unredeemed are called forth from the sleep of death and subjected to consciously experienced destruction by hell-fire. This is what I believe. This is hardly a humanist world view. In any event, I will say that I go where the Scriptures lead.

Up until about a year ago (maybe a little bit more), I held the "traditional" view. I then realized that this was a view that had been blindly accepted by me. When I chose to see what the Scriptures have to teach about this matter, I came to conclude that the ultimate end of the unredeemed is annihilation and that there is no immortal consciousness bearing soul / spirit.

I don't think you are an atheist, I said that. The annihilation whether before or after resurrection matters little in terms of the end result. In this respect many atheist - who don't believe in the resurrection - simply believe that when you die you are annihilated.
 
TanNinety wrote:

Stranger: 'Man in heaven or hell still remains a dependant being'.

What is the dependence that you are talking about? If God, how does eternal dependence in hell reconcile eternal separation from God?

Greetings Tan,

Point for point responses are good. I will try to answer questions put to me though I am pressed for time at the moment.

It is a dependance of man partaking of a nature. . . Hell is a separation from the possibility of ever partaking of the divine nature. The redeemed will partake of God's nature without hinderance in heaven. But there is a nature that is not divine, of which man can partake, is there not?
 
TanNinety wrote:

Fine, lets take the above. Does Paul say the wicked put on this incorruptible? Do the wicked change and put on the spiritual in the twinkling of an eye? Then where is the “spiritual incorruptible†that you say that the wicked will also posses come from?


Taking the above principle I list another that closely follows. . .

1. 'first comes the physical then the spiritual' . . .
2. 'If there is a natural body there is also a spiritual body' 1Cor 15:44.

Both wicked and righteous (those in Christ) will be resurrected. I say that the 'spiritual body' continues to partake of one of two possible natures after the resurrection. The 'spiritual incorruptible' - I would say 'spiritual corruptible' comes from sin and the flesh which can be traced back to the physical body of the unredeemed.

I don't know about the wicked being changed in the twinkling of an eye - when the antiChrist is revealed the wicked will be like him in nature?>? The antiChrist is a revealing of a nature that is hidden by restraint at the present time.
 
TanNinety said:
The above two views seem somewhat to contradict. May be you can clarify. If man is primarily spiritual then he is living now as a spiritual being only clothed in a physical body. Then your second statement should be false because it should be, “first comes spiritual in physical and then the spiritual.â€Â

Let me give you an analogy:
Think your fleshly body as the immortal soul.
Think the clothes you wore as your fleshly body.

Now the clothes by themselves are not “livingâ€Â. Even though you are walking around in your clothes no one will say that your clothes have life but the fleshly body that is fitting this clothing. So to even say that first comes the clothes then the physical body, it wouldn’t make sense because the physical body was what was animating the clothes in the first place.

So if the spirit is what is animating this physical body you cannot say that the spiritual body is not alive now! And your statement first physical becomes false because first is “spiritual in physical†then “spiritual all by itselfâ€Â. Scriptures do not teach this.


Hi Tan,

My framework is physical body. . . and this is 'in Adam or in Christ'. Two natures. Angels and demons are also spirtual beings but one is pure and the other is corrupt. That I say man is primarily a spiritual being also has reference to creation - he was created a spiritual being in the image and likeness of God. I do not want to discuss the soul in the context of this framework as it is confusing. 'Flesh' is a nature that I distinguish from a purely phyical body. 'The nature of man is primarily spiritual' might be a better expression.
 
stranger said:
The point I made was that it doesn't matter how 'you' interpret it - Lazarus issues a warning. If he is annihilated then he can issue no such warning.
I don't understand why you think this is a problem.

The Luke 16 "parable" is about (for the sake of argument) the need to obey the prophets, not about the world of the dead;

The dog "parable" is about the need to obey the prophets, not about the world of the dead.

In the dog parable, something untrue about the nature of dogs (that they speak) is used as a literary device to communicate the important truth - to not ignore the prophets.

In the Luke 16 parable, something untrue about the nature of man (that he has conscious experience immediately after death) is used as a literary device to communicate the important truth - to not ignore the prophets.

Let's imagine that the following account appeared in the scriptures:

"Dog A dies and goes to dog Paradise for being obeying his master. Dog B dies and goes to dog Hades for disobeying his master. Dog B asks dog A to send a warning to Dog B's fellow dogs. Dog A says that they have their human masters to instruct them to be good"

Lets say we all agree that real dogs in the real world do not have an afterlife - they die phyically and cease to exist. Does this create some kind of logical problem with the dog account as a parable? No it does not. The lesson is clear - listen to your master. The fact that dogs do not have an afterlife does not make the parable incoherent. The fact that real dogs are annihilated does not mean that we cannot have this fact "suspended" as part of the literary mechanism to convery the real message - to obey the master.
 
Drew said:
I don't understand why you think this is a problem.

The Luke 16 "parable" is about (for the sake of argument) the need to obey the prophets, not about the world of the dead;

The dog "parable" . . . .

Forget the dog parable. . .

Luke 16 v19ff is not just about the 'need to obey the law and the prophets' . . . but to believe the warnings contained therein in relation to what happened to the rich man AFTER he DIED and was BURIED.
 

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