About the Son of God
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We are discussing scripture. I am sorry you think that's bickering. I don't.
I stand sort of corrected; but the statement "bicker" isn't about the contents of scripture.
Until the conversation does not rest on Until, we will have unrest.
He did, but you're also putting words in my mouth. His baptism was of repentance, called a "mikvah" bath in Hebrew (sorry if my spelling is off.) None of John's disciples had any unusual idea of what the messiah was on his account, in any event. So his preaching was only that of normal Jewish prophet.By your explanation of the word "until", John would have had to minister the Law and the Prophets.
There were baptisms before John.
But the Gospel *IS* found in the prophets before John (And like John, it can't actually recognize Jesus):
John 5:39 Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.
John 5:46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.
Luke 24:25-27
Luke 24:27 And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself
What John did was clearly this:
John 1:6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.
John 1:8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.
And witnessing the light, is preaching the Gospel; without *yet* rejecting the Law.
If anything is proven by Jesus' statement, it is that the Gospel is preached *more* now than before.
I agree, John preached it.... but so?By my explanation of the word "until", John would have preached the kingdom of God.
The Gospel was preached before, although it wasn't *available*. (Jethro is beginning to discuss that aspect, as did the St. Francis De' sales fellow.)
Fine. But, it's not just his blood -- that's an oversight. It's his BODY and blood; in a LIVING sacrifice.John paved the way for Jesus. Jesus preached the kingdom of God and fulfilled all the requirements of the Law and established the New Covenant with His blood.
In contradistinction to those who argued with you before, I assent to your position that it is an insertion; and not the original law. "added" does not mean "original". But as Romans points out, the law existed outside of Moses, but *ONLY* when people did what the law required.So it is with Galatians, ...snip...
Yes -- *and* the old law stayed around after John for some time.When the Seed came the change took place.
Your entire premise rides on JOHN being the turning point, and it wasn't.
The turning point was Jesus and Jesus' disciples baptisms.
The least born into the kingdom of God is greater than John the Baptist.
And body, and spirit (soul), and divinity, and sacrifice, and resurrection, and ascention to the right hand of the Father.That change was established by His blood.
Without the body -- we have no resurrection; without the resurrection -- we're still DEAD in our sins.
And the change DID NOT HAPPEN until a PROPHET (high priest) of the Old testament, operating under the Old Law, prophesied LONG after John died.
The UNTIL you mention is worthless when trying to say the old law was GONE during John the Baptists lifetime.
I even agree there; although I don't agree that every part of the Mosaic law was not to be permanent. You're taking the extremest position with respect to change -- and you aren't keeping track of nuanced argumentation. It's going to smack into you again, and again.... and cause others reading the thread endless confusion.The simple fact is, The law of Moses was never intended to be permanent, -
The statement says "easier for heaven and earth to pass away, than one tittle of the law."
We know 1) that Heaven and Earth will pass away; and we know a tittle is not the whole law, but only a small bit of it.
We know 2) that "Easier" (in English, only) does not mean impossible. (This helps you BTW ... but there are other phrasings in scripture which won't help you; precisely because of the UNTIL they use.)
Hebrews 7:11
Notice in that passage it only says "Aaron" but no mention is made of the Levite priests in general; for Aaron had a special role. Aaron is from Levi, but Levites are not all from Aaron.
1) The law is held in place by the priesthood of Levi in General; but there are TWO priesthoods.
2) The high priest, and specific sacrifices, belongs ONLY to the tribe of Aaron.
3) The Other Levites had some PRIESTLY duties that were NOT sin offerings.
Psalm 40:6 Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened: burnt offering and sin offering hast thou not required.8 Previously saying, "Sacrifice and offering, burnt offerings, and offerings for sin You did not desire, nor had pleasure in them" (which are offered according to the law), 9 then He said, "Behold, I have come to do Your will, O God." He takes away the first that He may establish the second.
OK; you've just quoted Paul making an extreme statement...
Hebrews is an abridged conversation; it is addressed to Gentiles, not the "Jews"; Therefore Paul selectively omits parts of texts that happen to be important to the question of the "Law" and the "Jew". There is something important to discuss here, the holocaust.
But: I'd like to understand you before starting that conversation in earnest:
Which covenant law did the "cleared away" sacrifices belong to? (and why)
Next: tell me about this burnt offering; is it abolished -- in what way/when will it come again?
Lastly: do you hold that the only kind of sacrifice there is -- is a sin sacrifice ?
Think carefully, for Paul writes some things "hard to understand". (2Peter 3:15-16)
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