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Why Christians Cannot Sin

You said Peter was a sinner. Is a sinner going to have the keys to heaven?

To even suggest a mere mortal is going to have the keys to heaven and hell is nonsense anyway.
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Then why did you bring it up? What is your point?
 
So was Peter's dissimulation.
Peter was worried about how he would appear to the visitors.
You are accusing him of the sin of not wanting to be accused of sin.
I'm accusing him of what Paul accused him of--acting hypocritically and causing other Jews to do the same.

It is the "forcefulness" of your version of scripture's interpretation only.
No, actually it isn't.

Gal 2:11 But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed.
Gal 2:12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision.
Gal 2:13 And the other Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that Barnabas also was carried away with their dissimulation.
Gal 2:14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?

As I pointed out previously, "blamed" in verse 11 is the Greek word kataginosko, used only three times and translated the other two times as "condemn." I also pointed out that M. R. Vincent says "blamed" is wrong; the idea it that of Peter being condemned by his own actions.

The Greek word for "dissembled with" is sunupokrinomai, and means "to act hypocritically with."

https://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/sunupokrinomai.html

The Greek word for "dissimulation" is hupokrisis, and is used 7 times, translated as "hypocrisy" 5 times, and "condemnation" once.

https://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/hupokrisis.html

The KJV says the very same that the ESV does.


Why do you keep avoiding the questions I asked? I'll post them again:

If it really was merely about catering to visitors, then why did Paul take such issue with it?
Do you think God approves of hypocrisy?
 
Most of them were Jews, some were Gentile converts to Judaism.
So if a person converts to Judaism is s/he not a Jew? Here is the wikipedia definition: A Jew is one who practices the Jewish religion, Judaism.
 
Wikipedia wouldn't be my go to source for anything biblical. The Scriptures mention Jews as an ethnic group. One can practice Judaism and not be a Jew. Think of it like this; Christian Jews are referred to as Messianic Jews. In the Bible, there are "sects" of Jews, each different in key beliefs and practices of Judaism (the Pharisees, the Sadducees, the Essenes, and the Zealots (aka the Sikarim), but all were/are Jews. Jew=Race. Judaism=Religion.
 
Wikipedia wouldn't be my go to source for anything biblical. The Scriptures mention Jews as an ethnic group. One can practice Judaism and not be a Jew. Think of it like this; Christian Jews are referred to as Messianic Jews. In the Bible, there are "sects" of Jews, each different in key beliefs and practices of Judaism (the Pharisees, the Sadducees, the Essenes, and the Zealots (aka the Sikarim), but all were/are Jews. Jew=Race. Judaism=Religion.
A Jew is someone who is part of or believes in the Jewish religion. One cannot practice Judaism without being a Jew.

Even your statement that "Christian Jews are referred to as Messianic Jews" demonstrates this. Christian Jews are Jews.

Jew = person. Judaism = religion.
 
Thanks! What then, was the purpose of the Law.
When God brought the Jews out of Egypt they went nuts and rebelled against God. God gave them the law as a restraint. They had to wander in the desert for 40 years so that the rebels could die off. The law was a temporary measure until their Messiah arrived. When Jesus died on the cross the Mosiac law was abolished, Ephesians 2:15. Jesus nailed it to his cross, Colossians 2:14. Under the New Covenant God's people live by faith in Christ and his Gospel and not by rules, laws or religion, Romans 1:17.
 
When God brought the Jews out of Egypt they went nuts and rebelled against God. God gave them the law as a restraint. They had to wander in the desert for 40 years so that the rebels could die off. The law was a temporary measure until their Messiah arrived. When Jesus died on the cross the Mosiac law was abolished, Ephesians 2:15. Jesus nailed it to his cross, Colossians 2:14. Under the New Covenant God's people live by faith in Christ and his Gospel and not by rules, laws or religion, Romans 1:17.
Thanks for answering.
 
You said Peter was a sinner. Is a sinner going to have the keys to heaven?

To even suggest a mere mortal is going to have the keys to heaven and hell is nonsense anyway.
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Do you know what the "keys" are?
Peter told us on the day of Pentecost, in Acts 2:38..."Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost."
 
I'm accusing him of what Paul accused him of--acting hypocritically and causing other Jews to do the same.
Your word hypocrisy, which I call a "wasted opportunity" was that as a Christians who had been freed from the Law, he went and subjected himself to the Law again.
No, actually it isn't.
It is, as you are reacting to the wording in your own particular version of the bible's use of the word "condemned".
The KJV says "blamed".
If it really was merely about catering to visitors, then why did Paul take such issue with it?
Do you think God approves of hypocrisy?
His "catering to the visitors" pre-empted his upholding of the NT's freedom from the Law of Moses.
I don't think God approves of hypocrisy.

Don't you wish we had Peter's reaction to Paul's lecture?
Did Peter see a need for repentance from his reaction to his fears?
Did they, as a team, illuminate the visitors?
Did the visitors reject, or accept what Paul was trying to say?
 
Your word hypocrisy, which I call a "wasted opportunity" was that as a Christians who had been freed from the Law, he went and subjected himself to the Law again.
Hypocrisy is what the text says it was. Why do you feel the need to change it to something less? Two great errors in understanding the Bible are making it say less than it does and making it say more than it does.

It is, as you are reacting to the wording in your own particular version of the bible's use of the word "condemned".
The KJV says "blamed".
I've shown you that the KJV is wrong in this, but you won't address that and instead prefer to continue with a refuted argument. Why is that?

His "catering to the visitors" pre-empted his upholding of the NT's freedom from the Law of Moses.
The use of "catering" is making the text say less than it does.

I don't think God approves of hypocrisy.
God doesn't approve of hypocrisy, correct. Is it a sin?

Don't you wish we had Peter's reaction to Paul's lecture?
Did Peter see a need for repentance from his reaction to his fears?
Did they, as a team, illuminate the visitors?
Did the visitors reject, or accept what Paul was trying to say?
Unanswerable questions since the text doesn't say.

Anyway, Peter sinned because Christians continue to struggle with sin. That is part of the Christian life according the NT. If believes don't or can't sin, then all the warnings for believers are pointless. Paul certainly thought other believers were sinning, just as he struggled:

Rom 13:13 Let us walk properly as in the daytime, not in orgies and drunkenness, not in sexual immorality and sensuality, not in quarreling and jealousy.
Rom 13:14 But put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no provision for the flesh, to gratify its desires. (ESV)

1Co 1:11 For it has been reported to me by Chloe's people that there is quarreling among you, my brothers. (ESV)

2Co 12:20 For I fear that perhaps when I come I may find you not as I wish, and that you may find me not as you wish—that perhaps there may be quarreling, jealousy, anger, hostility, slander, gossip, conceit, and disorder.
2Co 12:21 I fear that when I come again my God may humble me before you, and I may have to mourn over many of those who sinned earlier and have not repented of the impurity, sexual immorality, and sensuality that they have practiced. (ESV)

Believers that think they are without sin, according to John, are self-deceived, don't have the truth, make God a liar, and don't have his word in them.
 
Hypocrisy is what the text says it was. Why do you feel the need to change it to something less? Two great errors in understanding the Bible are making it say less than it does and making it say more than it does.
The word hypocrite is not in Galatians in my KJV of the bible.
I've shown you that the KJV is wrong in this, but you won't address that and instead prefer to continue with a refuted argument. Why is that?
The KJV isn't wrong.
The use of "catering" is making the text say less than it does.
It accurately portrays Peter's actions
God doesn't approve of hypocrisy, correct. Is it a sin?
I can't find a place where the bible says it is a sin.
Unanswerable questions since the text doesn't say.
Anyway, Peter sinned because Christians continue to struggle with sin. That is part of the Christian life according the NT. If believes don't or can't sin, then all the warnings for believers are pointless. Paul certainly thought other believers were sinning, just as he struggled:
If he sinned, he was not a Christian: as there is no sin in Christ neither can there be sin in those in Christ.
Sinners are not in Christ.
I don't accuse Peter of sin.
Rom 13:13 Let us walk properly as in the daytime, not in orgies and drunkenness, not in sexual immorality and sensuality, not in quarreling and jealousy.
Rom 13:14 But put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no provision for the flesh, to gratify its desires. (ESV)
1Co 1:11 For it has been reported to me by Chloe's people that there is quarreling among you, my brothers. (ESV)
2Co 12:20 For I fear that perhaps when I come I may find you not as I wish, and that you may find me not as you wish—that perhaps there may be quarreling, jealousy, anger, hostility, slander, gossip, conceit, and disorder.
2Co 12:21 I fear that when I come again my God may humble me before you, and I may have to mourn over many of those who sinned earlier and have not repented of the impurity, sexual immorality, and sensuality that they have practiced. (ESV)

Believers that think they are without sin, according to John, are self-deceived, don't have the truth, make God a liar, and don't have his word in them.
As John is addressing those who walk in darkness, in 1 John 1:8, you should add that they can not say they have fellowship with God either. (1 John 1:6)
I am grateful to God for making it possible for me to walk in the light.
 
Wikipedia wouldn't be my go to source for anything biblical. The Scriptures mention Jews as an ethnic group. One can practice Judaism and not be a Jew. Think of it like this; Christian Jews are referred to as Messianic Jews. In the Bible, there are "sects" of Jews, each different in key beliefs and practices of Judaism (the Pharisees, the Sadducees, the Essenes, and the Zealots (aka the Sikarim), but all were/are Jews. Jew=Race. Judaism=Religion.
And the various factions are best ignored.
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There is only one law, it is the law that was given to Moses by God, it is the Mosiac law. It covers every aspect of ones life.
And Christians are out of it, so there is no point talking about it, unless you live under it, and then you are best escaping from it.
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Do you know what the "keys" are?
Peter told us on the day of Pentecost, in Acts 2:38..."Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost."
Very true, and the forgiveness of sins and the gift of the Holy Ghost is the domain of the only living God.
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Did God find fault in Paul for circumcising Timothy?
If Peter was worthy of condemnation for not eating with Gentiles, isn't Paul equally guilty for circumcising Timothy?
No. Timothy was Jewish. Circ was/is still required for Jewish believers.
Peter's fault was lending credence to the Law being in effect, after the Law was nailed to the cross of Christ.
Peter's fault was trying to force Gentile believers to follow the same rules as Jews.

"I said to Cephas before them all, “If you, though a Jew, live like a Gentile and not like a Jew, how can you force the Gentiles to live like Jews?”"
Mistaken, but not sinful.
Um - since the definition of the word (both in Greek and Hebrew) translated "sin" actually means to aim an arrow and miss the bulls eye, "mistaken" has to be sinful.
 
There was accusation and denial from the Apostles in the NT on this matter brought up by Paul.

We have heard that some went out from us without our authorization and disturbed you, troubling your minds by what they said.

Peter's open stance at the council to discuss the troubling matters at hand.

Peter got up and addressed them: “Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from my lips the message of the gospel and believe. 8 God, who knows the heart, showed that he accepted them by giving the Holy Spirit to them, just as he did to us. 9 He did not discriminate between us and them, for he purified their hearts by faith. 10 Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear? 11 No! We believe it is through the grace of our Lord Jesus that we are saved, just as they are.
 
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