brightfame52
2024 Supporter
JJonas
So do you believe Peter teaches here that some people for whom Christ died, shed His Blood for and redeemed, can nevertheless die in their sins in unbelief ?
I don't see how it can have such a meaning, and can't see of any other example in the Bible where such a language was used. I believe, Peter would have use the same language as the verse you quoted below and plainly written that they professed to be bought by the Lord, if it is what he meant:
So do you believe Peter teaches here that some people for whom Christ died, shed His Blood for and redeemed, can nevertheless die in their sins in unbelief ?