Deborah13
Member
@Deborah13 :I have known for years that the great and venerable and anointed KJV is far from perfect.
Just think of all of the great missionaries and evangelists, etc. who used it all over the world.
I agree, there are times when the KJV is not perfect. But the YLT also says "of Christ". Care to investigate the Koine to determine the translation? Have you done this? The determination of an objective or subjective genitive very often can only be determined by exegesis,(per Moulton)
So in this case, does Jesus receive our faith?
"the love of Christ" is that objective genitive or subjective genitive?
Young's is very formal, and it goes for form over interpretation, so often, so I would expect it to do what it does, really.
Just to mention that objective refers to the grammatical object, rather than to the objective/subjective paradigm. (I've just been around seminary folk who have explained it this way.)
Blessings.
YLT means literal translation. Yes, he used the formal language like the King James but in this case we don't have to deal with old English, there isn't any that I see. YLT actually does not follow the KJV, quite often the wording is different both in form and arrangement.
So what is your understanding of "grammatical object". The object of the prepositional phrase?
blessing to you, too.