I sure have.
You keep believing verses addressed to those walking in darkness (sin) are meant for those walking in the light (God).
They're very much speaking to believers. I have given the contextual reasons why; which you have not done. You also have not provided any other form of support for your assertions.
Again, throughout all of chapter 1and into 2 are John's continual use of "we," us," and "our." He is speaking to believers, about believers, and including himself.
Just like that...again.
If all our unrighteousness can be cleansed, what cant we say we have no unrighteousness ?
As I have pointed out previously, the Greek meaning doesn't get conveyed in certain versions of English translations.
John's use of the verb "confess" in
1 John 1:9 is in the "present subjunctive, speaking of continuous action." The translation of this verse given in Wuest's
Word Studies in the Greek New Testament, is: "If we continue to confess our sins, faithful is He and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from every unrighteousness."
Additionally, both Wuest's
Word Studies in the Greek New Testament and
The Expositor's Greek Testament show that the Greek grammar of
1 John 3:6,
8, and
9 is also talking about continuous and habitual action. Hence why the ESV and NIV renderings are more clear as to what John was actually saying.
Why would John say that? Because he is simply repeating what Jesus said, as recorded by him, in
John 8:34:
Joh 8:34 Jesus answered them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, everyone who practices sin is a slave to sin. (ESV)
"The Greek grammar here is such that Jesus is speaking of those who constantly do sin, who live in sin" (Hendriksen,
New Testament Commentary: John, p. 53).
So, what was actually written by John, in the Greek, proves your position incorrect.
Everybody has dinned, but not all continue to sin.
Once again, the Greek doesn't come through in the English but proves that your position cannot possibly be correct.
"If we should say that not we have sinned"--the order of the Greek. The phrase "we have sinned" is in the perfect tense, meaning ongoing in the present time; that is, after conversion.
If a sinner wants to come to God, he can.
But to continue sinning means his intent was false.
No. John is writing to "my little children;" to believers. Notice that he says "so that you may not sin," not "so that you will not sin." If believers could no longer sin, that is a pointless statement. When he says "if anyone does sin," he is linking that to "so that you may not sin," that is, to his "little children."
If the "brother" is sinning, he is only a brother to other children of the devil.
He was only a "brother" in name.
That is nowhere even implied. You're reading far too much into the text of 1 John.
Is Jesus a "brother" of Hitler ?
It pains me to think you can't tell them apart.
What kind of question and statement are those? How in the world do you get that from anything I've said? You're reading into my statements just like you do 1 John. "Brother" (and "sister") is used throughout the NT of fellow believers; that is almost exclusively what it means unless the context is clearly talking about biological relations. It
never refers to an unbeliever.
No, it doesn't.
Your claim negates the facts of rebirth from God's seed.
Those reborn of God's seed cannot bring forth the devil's fruit.
Neither can apple seeds bring forth pumpkins
Your statements here are just fallaciously begging the question.