We don't have language sufficient to describe a place we cannot comprehend
Totally agree!
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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We don't have language sufficient to describe a place we cannot comprehend
It is a leap in logic to extrapolate ECT from this event, where the rich man is shown. Turning it into doctrine? 2 of the 5 original schools of theology did not. There has never been consensus on this. I don't see how we today are going to get closer to Jesus' meaning than they were.There is good reason to think that if he was going to be burned up, and thus ceasing to exist, he would have done so, showing that the flames of hell being of a different nature, had a different result of impact upon spiritual matter.
The parable of Lazarus and the rich man? Jesus uses Hades, not Gehenna.Gehinnom , in the Hebrew, Gehenna in the Greek and meaning lake of fire,was the valley outside of Jerusalem. Ge Hinnom "the Valley of Hinnom, that place where fires burned continuously to consume city waste and the bodies of dead criminals who were consumed by the fires there. The grave of the poor and the executed criminals where they were destroyed by what was everlasting fire. It was used in Jesus parable often used to defend the existence of eternal Hell, the parable of the rich man, as mentioned prior.
Yes, I know. Gehenna is not Hades, it is not the grave.Sheol (sic)"While the Hebrew Bible appears to describe Sheol as the permanent place of the dead, in the Second Temple period (roughly 500 BCE–70 CE) a more diverse set of ideas developed. In some texts, Sheol is considered to be the home of both the righteous and the wicked, separated into respective compartments; in others, it was considered a place of punishment, meant for the wicked dead alone,[4] and is equated with Gehenna in the Talmud.[5] When the Hebrew scriptures were translated into Greek in ancient Alexandria around 200 BC, the word "Hades" (the Greek underworld) was substituted for Sheol. This is reflected in the New Testament where Hades is both the underworld of the dead and the personification of the evil it represents.[4] "
I reiterated it because you argued to context to say that Jesus point "was to inform the destiny of the unredeemed who suffer the second death if they die in their sins," which is incorrect. The context shows that Jesus point is what I have stated.I don't think it has ever been murky for readers. Yes, you reiterate there what was previously stated when you refer to fear of God. Who can destroy the body and soul. Destruction precludes preservation.
It is a leap in logic to extrapolate ECT from this event, where the rich man is shown. Turning it into doctrine? 2 of the 5 original schools of theology did not. There has never been consensus on this. I don't see how we today are going to get closer to Jesus' meaning than they were.
JohnDB's post makes a lot of sense, and I note that you liked it.
What is 'death'? Jesus said to "let the dead bury their own dead" (Matt 8:22, ESV). Also, Paul seems to be referring to the second death, the lake of fire, which really doesn't address the issue of what that means.The penalty for sin (as Paul clearly stated) is death.
The bigger question, perhaps, is, "Is the rebellion against the eternal God and his sacrifice for us just a temporal sin"?It makes no sense that the price paid to cover sin is eternal torment in a fire. In other words, to pay for my own sins (outside of Christ) would not be eternal torment. You can't have an eternal price to pay for a temporal sin because sin is temporal and will be destroyed. That's Greek and pagan thinking about eternal life in a fire. Otherwise, it would not be death, but eternal life in torment.
Everyone is raised physically and we remain physical, albeit changed. That is the teaching of Scripture."Eternal Fire" is not straightforward in our language. The language is describing the action of the fire. In the English vernacular, we'd say "burned up forever". In short, no chance of a resurrection again. The bible plainly teaches (John 5 Christ's own words) that all people will be resurrected. Daniel says some to life and some to damnation. If it's to life, then one is raised a spirit being (aka the church). But if it's for judgement, or worse, for condemnation, it's physical as there are countless bible passages about a physical resurrection (see Ezekiel 37).
That the fire "is a means to destroy" isn't the issue; it's what does "destroy" mean.If that person does not become saved, they are then again destroyed in a fire, otherwise called the second death. The fire is the means to destroy them, not a topic of an eternal state.This indeed is eternal fire and eternal damnation, because such a person has no chance ever again to live. It's forever. If anyone wants the scriptures that point out to what I am saying, just ask. I think I gave enough illustrations to find them oneself.
What is 'death'? Jesus said to "let the dead bury their own dead" (Matt 8:22, ESV). Also, Paul seems to be referring to the second death, the lake of fire, which really doesn't address the issue of what that means.
The bigger question, perhaps, is, "Is the rebellion against the eternal God and his sacrifice for us just a temporal sin"?
Everyone is raised physically and we remain physical, albeit changed. That is the teaching of Scripture.
That the fire "is a means to destroy" isn't the issue; it's what does "destroy" mean.
No, I clearly presented Scripture. Is it inconvenient to your position, is that why you didn't address it?So everything you presented here is not scriptural, but philosophical.
I have attempted to redefine nothing. I wish things were so easy but you're smuggling in your assumption of what "destroy" means. Looking at the possibilities:In the last instance, "destroy", you attempt to redefine the word. That's something evangelicals lamented with the word "marriage". What does destroy mean? It means to destroy. Period.
Indeed, even if that did talk about a fire, the parable does not indicate how long this would go on. It only is showing the man's fear of it and the resulting torment. I won't disagree with that. I'm sure one caught in a car fire from an accident is fearful and tormenting, too, that nobody wants to experience.
Actually, Ghenna is a Hebrew word which its idea originated with Solomon.The grave is Hades, not Gehenna; the Bible never equates the two. Gehenna is the final destination of the unrighteous, the lake of fire, better known Hell
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Jesus used Gehenna only of the final destination of unbelievers, a place of fire, and the one place to avoid at all costs. Those points all line up quite nicely with what we know of the lake of fire.Actually, Ghenna is a Hebrew word which its idea originated with Solomon.
Hades comes from Greek mythology. You may recall that Zues had a brother Hades. His underworld abode was called Hades and its deepest darkest realm was Tartarus.
In Revelation, Hades and Death get thrown into the Lake of Fire. I am curious how you link the Lake of Fire with Gehenna.
Thapto is Greek for grave / tomb.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 5028: τάφος
τάφος, τάφου, ὁ (θάπτω);
1. burial (so from Homer down).
2. a grave, sepulchre (so from Hesioddown): Matthew 23:27, 29; Matthew 27:61, 64, 66; Matthew 28:1; in a comparison: τάφος ἀνεῳγμένος ὁλάρυγξ αὐτῶν, their speech threatens destruction to others, it is death to someone whenever they open their mouth, Romans 3:13. The Sept. for קֶבֶר; and sometimes for קְבוּרָה.
Can you support that with scripture and a proper exegesis? With Ghenna, a good understanding of the origin, geographical location and history from an OT, Jewish perspective would work best if you can provide that.Jesus used Gehenna only of the final destination of unbelievers, a place of fire, and the one place to avoid at all costs. Those points all line up quite nicely with what we know of the lake of fire.
Do you honestly see any evidence in this passage that would lead you to believe that he was being consumed in the fire to the point of extinction.
I have done it in the past, somewhere in these forums. I thought the Scriptures were rather obvious. Almost every translation uses “Hell” for Gehenna.Can you support that with scripture and a proper exegesis?
I really don’t see how this would be relevant. If Jesus used Gehenna as the final destination of the unrighteous, a place of fire, a place of punishment, and a place to avoid at all costs, and he did, then that is how he used it and the origin really doesn’t matter.With Ghenna, a good understanding of the origin, geographical location and history from an OT, Jewish perspective would work best if you can provide that.
Other than Gehenna is not translated as "lake of fire," I know all of that. You said Gehenna was the grave; I pointed out that it is not. So I don't see how you're addressing your initial error.
Here is the context:
Matt 10:16-25 is about coming persecution. <--This is what the "them" in verse 26 is referring to--those doing the persecuting.
Mat 10:26 “So have no fear of them, for nothing is covered that will not be revealed, or hidden that will not be known.
Mat 10:27 What I tell you in the dark, say in the light, and what you hear whispered, proclaim on the housetops.
Mat 10:28 And do not fear those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Rather fear him who can destroy both soul and body in hell.
Mat 10:29 Are not two sparrows sold for a penny? And not one of them will fall to the ground apart from your Father.
Mat 10:30 But even the hairs of your head are all numbered.
Mat 10:31 Fear not, therefore; you are of more value than many sparrows. (ESV)
The rest of the chapter is about persecution, following Him at all costs, and receiving one's reward for doing so.
Again, it cannot be more clear that Jesus's point is to not fear man but rather fear God.
[edited]
I wanted to clarify this post that was edited entirely of my contribution , as it appears above but is unable to be edited so as to restore that. As were, by proof of the red text indicating moderator alteration of my posts.
There was no initial error in my postings here. Though evidence of that has been destroyed.
Thank you. :biggrin God's mercies , protection, and peace surround his people here.
I've already posted one reply to this so to save space I edited to add additional information.You can’t really go by the English definition of a word for gathering nuance on meaning in the original Greek.
Thayer’s Greek Lexicon:
DESTROY (in Matthew 10:28) = apollymi = STRONGS NT 622: ἀπόλλυμι
We are both students of the Bible and can learn much from one another.I have done it in the past, somewhere in these forums. I thought the Scriptures were rather obvious. Almost every translation uses “Hell”
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I really don’t see how this would be relevant. If Jesus used Gehenna as the final destination of the unrighteous, a place of fire, a place of punishment, and a place to avoid at all costs, and he did, then that is how he used it and the origin really doesn’t matter.
No, I clearly presented Scripture. Is it inconvenient to your position, is that why you didn't address it?
I have attempted to redefine nothing. I wish things were so easy but you're smuggling in your assumption of what "destroy" means. Looking at the possibilities:
Thayer Definition:
1) to destroy
1a) to put out of the way entirely, abolish, put an end to ruin
1b) render useless
1c) to kill
1d) to declare that one must be put to death
1e) metaphorically to devote or give over to eternal misery in hell
1f) to perish, to be lost, ruined, destroyed
2) to destroy
2a) to lose
The definition you are so adamant about is but one definition of many. In Matt 10:28, "destroy" could very well mean "render useless" or "to be lost or ruined". Would that not fit well with the following?
Mat 24:51 and will cut him in pieces and put him with the hypocrites. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth. (ESV)
Do you not find it interesting that "there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth" in hell?
Mat 8:11 I tell you, many will come from east and west and recline at table with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven,
Mat 8:12 while the sons of the kingdom will be thrown into the outer darkness. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” (ESV)
Mat 13:40 Just as the weeds are gathered and burned with fire, so will it be at the end of the age.
Mat 13:41 The Son of Man will send his angels, and they will gather out of his kingdom all causes of sin and all law-breakers,
Mat 13:42 and throw them into the fiery furnace. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
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Mat 13:49 So it will be at the end of the age. The angels will come out and separate the evil from the righteous
Mat 13:50 and throw them into the fiery furnace. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth. (ESV)
Mat 22:13 Then the king said to the attendants, ‘Bind him hand and foot and cast him into the outer darkness. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’ (ESV)
Mat 25:30 And cast the worthless servant into the outer darkness. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’ (ESV)
Again, "weeping and gnashing of teeth" in the "outer darkness" and "fiery furnace". How does that work if people are destroyed in the sense you are using it?
And how do degrees of punishment after the judgment work if people are destroyed in the sense you are using it?
Perhaps a little more studying before being so sure of your position and putting down others would be of benefit.