Me again friend!
I am going to give it one more shot with you, although I'm pretty sure that I know the outcome. :wink:
Michael A Disciple said:
Let us reason the deity of Jesus from another angle. That is the doctrine of one Lord as presented in the New Testament.
We see this in particularly two places.
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him. 1 Cor.8:6
5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. Eph. 4:5-6
I think your missing the concept of the word "one" in the context of that passage and in other portions of Scriptures. Your only giving more credence to the Doctrine of the triune God, according to Ephesians 4:5-6, there is only "one" (heis) Lord and who is Jesus Christ, and according to 1 Corinthians there is only One God "The Father". Notice how it clearly does not say One God Christ the Father, it says there is one God "
The Father"AND (kai) one Lord "Jesus Christ" making a clear distinction between the two. Lets examine Eph 4:4-6 exegetically, that passage is elaborating on the "unity" of the Spirit, the oneness among believers refers to having
one body-the one body of Christ, the Christian Church, NOTE: that the
one body of Christ is not literally "ONE BODY" as in ONE PERSON;
one spirit-the same Holy Spirit who imparts the same spiritual life to all believers. Note the comparison to the "one spirit" to the parallel found in 1 Corinthians 6:17 where it reads "But he that is joined unto the Lord is
one spirit." Can you honestly tell me that that a believer who is "United" with the Lord is literally "ONE SPIRIT"? Of course not! Continuing, there is
one hope-all Christians share the same future certainty and are headed toward the same heavenly destination; there is
one Lord-all submit to the same divine ruler who is Jesus; one faith-all believers have placed the same trust in Christ for their salvation;
one baptism-Holy Spirit baptism at the time of salvation; and finally we have
One God and Father-all believers in Christ have the same God and heavenly Father, this is the Father of Christ.
Michael A Disciple said:
The Greek word for God in both passages is "Theos" meaning according to Youngs concordance God,a god, object of worship.
In these two portions of scripture many people see a very clear cut seperation between God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. They say it proves that Jesus is not in another realm of existence God himself.
Friends would you agree with me as I agree with the apostle Paul there is only ONE God the father? And would you agree with me as I agree with the apostle Paul there is only ONE Lord (Jesus) to us the believer? Good.
In all honesty, I'm not sure what your getting at here. Theos can also represent a false God (satan) as in 2 Corinthians 4:4, however that wasn't my point. You didn't take into consideration that the titles "theos" and "kurios" are used by Paul to make a CLEAR distinction between Christ and the Father, else it could have easily be read as "One God the Father Jesus Christ". Theos and Kurios in context are both descriptions of Deity Especially in religious Jewish context, Paul being a Jew was full aware of this which is the reason why it was written in that context .
Michael A Disciple said:
So for those who reject the docrine of "I and my Father are one" try this on for size!
Revelation 19
1 And after these things I heard a great voice of much people in heaven, saying, Alleluia; Salvation, and glory, and honour, and power, unto the Lord our God:
Get the point?
The Lord (Jesus)is OUR GOD!
We have seen there is ONLY ONE LORD. We know that is Jesus.
We know there is ONLY ONE GOD and that is the Father.
Yet now we see in Rev. 19:1 that the LORD is OUR GOD!
If Jesus (the Lord)is our God then he is God the Father for we see in the same 2 verses 1 Cor. 8:6 and Eph. 4:6 that the One God is the Father.
This is another confirmation that when our Lord said "I and my Father are one" he actually was speaking as a "a man making himself God"
I do believe there is a distinction of being within the Christ. He is all that scripture shows him to be.
I've tried it on for size and it doesn't seem to fit. ;-) Revelation 19 in no way proves that Jesus is the Father, your putting pieces of a scriptural jigsaw puzzle in the wrong places. 1 Corinthians 8:6 makes a clear distinction between One Lord and One Father, in crystal clear context it shows that Christ is not the Father, you are simply ignoring the context of that verse. Revelation 19 reads "Lord our God", and? Both the Father and the Son is called Lord, and they are "distinct" as I have already proven. Furthermore we read also in Revelation 5:7 that the "Lamb" takes the book out of the right hand oh Him that sat on the throne "God the Father".
And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth. And he came and took the book out of the right hand of him that sat upon the throne. (Revelation 5:6,7)
If Jesus is the "Father", then Jesus took the book out of His own hand on the Throne while He wasn't even on the throne, sound right to you?
Now what did Jesus mean when He said that "I and my Father are one"?
Do you notice that Jesus doesn't actually say that He "is" the Father, but rather that He and His Father "are" one. If you take time to diligently study the scriptures we find in the New Testament that Jesus is explicitly referred to as "the Son" more than 200 times and He is never even once called the "Father." The Father" is referred to as someone else who is clearly distinct from Jesus by Jesus. Furthemore it is found that Jesus referred to "the Father" or "my Father," or "your Father" in the Gospels as distinct from himself over 179 times, you will not once find any scriptures where Jesus refer to "my Son" as distinct from himself! Even furthermore in the Gospel of John alone, Jesus refers to himself as "sent by the Father," over 40 times and He never once referred to himself as the Father who had sent the Son. Furthermore, Jesus did not say that He "is" the Father, but rather that He and the Father "are" one (ego kai ho pater hen esmen) which is rendered literally as "I and the Father one we are" The verb esmen (are) is plural in the Greek, for this reason, Jesus didn’t say, "I and the Father am (eimi) one," but rather He said that, "I and the Father are (esmen)one." Now BACK to the word "ONE" When translated the word "one" (hen) is in the neuter gender. In the greek the neuter (hen) is indicating a UNITY of essence and not an absolute identity. Think of it this way, if Jesus wanted to communicate that He Himself was the Father, then He would certainly would have used the masculine (heis) not one person, but of one essence or nature.
God Bless!