That would be an assertion.
It is a sound argument. One you, or any other, have yet to attempt to refute.
Jhn 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. (ESV)
The Word, the pre-incarnate Son, could not have not existed if this statement is true.
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
1. If “one God, the Father” precludes Jesus from being God, then it necessarily follows that “one Lord, Jesus Christ” precludes the Father from being Lord. That is, if we can never say Jesus is also God, we can never say the Father is also Lord.
2. If “from whom are all things” speaks of the absolute nature of God, that he is necessary being, then it necessarily follows that “through whom are all things” speaks of the absolute nature of Jesus, that is also necessary being. That is the same conclusion as John 1:3.
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (ESV)
If “all things were created” by the Son and if “he is before all things,” then it necessarily follows that the Son cannot have been created, or else those verses would be false.
Heb 1:2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. (NIV)
The very same logic applies here. If the universe was made though the Son, which is the same as saying “all things,” then the Son cannot be something that was created or the verse is false.
The Creator in Hebrews 1:10 can easily be seen as the God who anointed the Son in verse 9.
How so? It clearly states that God
says of the Son, “And, “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands,” etc. It is God himself saying that the Son created everything “in the beginning.” That is in complete agreement with John 1:1-3, 1 Cor 8:6, Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2.
This can be supported by a wide variety of scripture proving the Father is exclusively YHWH and created alone.
This is fallaciously begging the question.
Verse 20 says that all of those things in heaven and earth were reconciled to God by his blood on the cross which would be when he was a man, not in a supposed pre-existence. That's why despite it saying "all things" were created through him, I still see this about the context of the church, not literally all things in the most general sense of the word.
So, you want to see what you want and stick to your beliefs despite the obvious contradiction. At least you can admit it.
Of course all things were reconciled to God while the Son was also a man; that was rather the main point of his coming. That does not, however, negate the fact that he also created all things. The fact he did so, as attested to by several passages, is central to understanding who he is and why his sacrifice was sufficient.
Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together.
Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent.
Col 1:19 For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell,
Col 1:20 and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross. (ESV)
The “Fors” and “Ands” mean something. They’re conjunctions; they connect words, phrases, or clauses that are the same, or connect dependant clauses to independent clauses. They provide the flow of thought, such as in the passage above.
The “For” at the start of verse 16 provides the basis for what was stated in verse 15. The “And” in verses 17 and 18 show that the thought is continuing. Verse 19 changes direction but it is still related to what came before, hence “For,” and verse 20 continues with that particular thought.
The whole point is that redemption, reconciliation, and salvation are based on who the Son is, namely, that he is the agent by whom all things that ever came into being, came into being. Again, that means he cannot have been something that came into being.
There is simply no way to limit this to the church without doing serious violence to the text.
All isn't always literal. It sometimes can be, but it's more like an exaggeration sometimes. For example, Jesus told the disciples they would be taught "all things" in John 14:26. There's no record of them becoming omniscient. There is some measure, balance, and context required to understand Colossians 1:15-20.
Context, context, context. Col 1:16-17 make it clear that “all things” means all things—“by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities.”
Jhn 14:26 But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you. (ESV)
Here it is clear that Jesus is talking about the things that he said to them, not everything that can be known. Omnisicence is an incommunicable attribute of God.
