Heb 4:10 KJV For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.
It's the rest of trusting Yahweh for salvation which the Israelite trusting Yahweh to give rest from enemies was a type of. Now maybe you can answer my questions as well :biggrin Do you believe Joshua will lead us into the rest Jesus provides ?
It's the rest of trusting God for salvation? Can you explain what that means?
You said the rest that Paul's readers enter into is the rest of trusting God for salvation. OK, Paul said of that rest, that those to whom it was first preached didn't enter in.
Therefore,
since a promise remains of entering His rest, let us fear lest any of you seem to have come short of it.
2 For indeed
the gospel was preached to us as well as to them; but the word which they heard did not profit them1, not being mixed with faith in those who heard it.
3 For
we who have believed do enter that rest, as He has said: "So I swore in My wrath,`They shall not enter My rest1,'" although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
4 For He has spoken in a certain place of the seventh day in this way: "And God rested on the seventh day from all His works1";
5 and again in this place: "They shall not enter My rest1."
6 Since
therefore it remains that some must enter it, and
those to whom it was first preached did not enter because of disobedience,
7 again He designates a certain day, saying in David, "Today," after such a long time, as it has been said: "Today, if you will hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts1."
(Heb 4:1-7 NKJ)
To answer your question, no, I don't think Joshua takes Paul's readers into the rest. That was my whole point.
Because it lines up well with what Jesus said and also matches how Yahweh disciplines.
It may line up well with what Jesus said, but how does that necessitate that that's what Paul means?
Yes we are. What's you definition of turning someone over to satan ?
I don't have a definition of what it means. The phrase only appears once in Paul's writings and he doesn't explain it. I suspect the Corinthians understood what he meant as he spent a good bit of time with them.
1Cor11: 39-22 is about disciplining believers which corresponds well with the Israelite and Moses and Aaron dying in the wilderness. I havent discounted destruction of the flesh in 1 Cor 5 may also imply death or sickness.
I don't wee what this discipline has to do with Moses and Aaron.
If destruction of the flesh is a metaphor for destroying the sin nature why does this imply the person isn't turned over to satan ?
I don't see any reason to think half of the sentence is literal and the other half metaphorical.
Yes that's right the flesh cannot live without the spirit that's what I said. You said "yet it's the flesh that is resurrected and that lives again." The point is the whole person is saved after the destruction of the flesh whether this means purification/chastisement from sin or death. Either way the person will be resurrected.
But as I said, it requires platonic Dualism
Yeah but you're wrong. Moses and Aaron also came out of Egypt and didn't wholly follow Yahweh the same as every { male ?) adult aside from Joshua and Caleb. They both died in the wilderness for this reason.
You keep trying to include Moses and Aaron in this group, they're not in it. Please show me where Moses and Aaron were a part of those who provoked the Lord "these ten times".
22 "
because all these men who have seen My glory and the signs which I did in Egypt and in the wilderness, and
have put Me to the test now these ten times, and have not heeded My voice,
23 "they certainly shall not see the land of which I swore to their fathers, nor shall any of those who rejected Me see it. (Num 14:22-23 NKJ)
Also, take notice to who it is that God is speaking to here, It's Moses. If Moses was one of this group why did God just say this a few verses prior?
11 Then the LORD said to Moses: "How long will these people reject Me? And how long will they not believe Me, with all the signs which I have performed among them?
12 "I will strike them with the pestilence and disinherit them, and
I will make of you a nation greater and mightier than they." (Num 14:11-12 NKJ)
Why would God say that to Moses if He was going to cut him off?
Yeah that sounds about right aside from the unclear definition of "Gospel" here. Paul is using the physical rest the Israelite lost by not entering the promised Land as a type of the future rest which many haven't yet entered. The distinction is also being made that the rest from entering the Promised Land isn't the future rest Jesus will provide.
Unclear definition of Gospel? There's only one, it's been preached from the beginning. Part of that Gospel is,
15 For all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed for ever. (Gen 13:15 KJV)
If entering the promised land isn't the rest that Jesus gives what is that rest?