Flesh gives birth to flesh - and if sin entered the world through the first man in the flesh, then such sin is in all flesh that this initially corrupted flesh gives birth to. "Flesh" here refers to the human self-nature. The Spirit is God's nature at work in us.
Sin does not give birth to sin "What mean ye, that ye use this proverb concerning the land of Israel, saying, The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge?....
The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him. ", Eze 33.
Sin is not inherited so i was not born a sinner but became a sinner when I sinned. I am not accountable for Adam's or anyone else's sins, I am only accountable for my sins.
ivdavid said:
For it to be ALL God's fault then, you'll have to prove that God is the cause of sin entering the world - which we all know He isn't.
The issue is that God forms the spirit within man, Zech 12:1. If God formed a depraved spirit within me then that is not my fault. If God formed me where I can only choose to do wrong that is God's fault for I had no choice in the way I was formed. I had no choice in being born depraved, it would be forced upon me. If only God can regenerate me out of this depraved condition that was forced upon me, but He does not, then whose fault is my lost, depraved condition? God's fault. Again, how I was born was not my fault and not being 'regenerated' is not my fault.
ivdavid said:
You're right, Adam was not created totally depraved. He was corrupted by sin and consequently rebelled against God's law. Such rebellion continues to be in our flesh/self-nature. We can be redeemed only if God's nature supersedes the works of our corrupted self-nature - which He does in regenerating us.
Adam was not created a sinner, he did not become a sinner till he of his own free will chose to sin. Likewise God did not form me a sinner nor was I born a sinner, i did not become a sinner till I choose to sin. 1 Jn 3:4 John defined sin as trangression of the law. It is impossible for the newlyconcieved/newly born to transgress God's law. What law have they trangressed? Lying? Stealing? Murder? Adultery? Therefore people are born innocent, neutral.."(For [the children] being not yet born, neither
having done any good or evil," Rom 9:11. So one is not a sinner until he has done sin and one is not righteous until he has done righteousness.
ivdavid said:
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
How do you see the correlation between "one man's disobedience" and "many being made sinners" in the above verse? According to you, shouldn't that one man's disobedience have nothing to do with any other person?
In this verse, "many" refers to the same people. So if many were all born sinners because of Adam, than that same many shall all be made righteous, meaning all would be saved. Do you believe in Universalism? But that is not what Paul is saying.
When Paul says many were made sinners, NOWHERE EVER does Paul say they were made sinners by inheriting Adam's sin. In v12 Paul said "
Therefore, as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned."
Note Paul said "for all have sinned" not "all have inherited Adam's sin". So all have sinned for they choose to sin they were not sinners without choice by being forced sinners simply by being born.
ivdavid said:
An ideal or a standard of perfection is always independent of the abilities of the people governed by that ideal. The governments of our nations frame road laws based on ideals of safety - they're not quite based on man's abilities. A person born with poor eyesight and hence a threat on the roads will not be permitted to drive on the roads based on the ideals of safety, which is completely independent of such a man's natural abilities. Similarly, if God has set certain ideals to enter His Kingdom, they are indeed independent of man's abilities or rather inabilities. What we must take note of here is that God is not the cause of man's inability - man's abilities are corrupted by sin in the flesh, which entered through one man and has been in the world ever since, passed on in the flesh - where God is not the author of sin.
Again, if I was born totally depraved, whose fault is that? I had no choice in how I was born. If I am not "regenerated" from this depravity, whose fault is that, I would have no choice or control in this either.
ivdavid said:
You seem to have misunderstood what total depravity is here. Cain definitely had a choice to obey God's will or not - as does any man in the flesh - but total depravity describes the condition where sin in the flesh corrupts,deceives and inclines a man in the flesh to always CHOOSE against God's will. Total depravity does not imply the absence of "choice" - it merely describes the inclination of any choice to be always against God's will.
if total depravity were true, then Cain would have only been able to choose to not do well but God shows he could choose to do well. Now I have dealt with some Calvinists that back away from the word 'total' in total depravity and they claim that man can choose to do some good things but not when it comes to God and salvation. Of course this is a totally bogus, weak argument that is made just to try and get around problems they encounter.
Question; if total depravity were true, then Pharoah would have naturally chosen to disobey God. So why would God have to harden Pharoah's heart to get him to not let the people go when Pharoah was already born inclined to disobey God and would have not let the people even without God hardening his heart?
Did God force Pharaoh to disobey just so God could punish him? If so, then is not God to blame for the sin He forced Pharoah to commit?
ivdavid said:
Rom 7:17 Now then it is no more I[Paul] that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.
In the above verse, what is this "sin" that dwelleth in Paul - which Paul seems to attribute his transgressions to?
How have you derived "God causes man to be a sinner" from what I'd written? I don't believe Romans 9 teaches that either - it teaches that God's sovereignty is indeed righteous given that He has not caused any corruption Himself.
Paul NEVER said he was born with sin dwelling in him. In fact Paul said "For without the law sin [was] dead. For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died."
Paul said without law sin is dead, it has no effect, but Paul said he was once without law. That means at one point in his life sin was dead to him, it had no power over him. That would have been when Paul was a child and not accountable to God's law. But as he intellectually mature, he learned right from wrong, Isa 7:15,16, became accountable to God's law THEN sin sprang up in him. Sin was not in him at birth for he was without law but sin was something that sprang up in him later in his life.