th1b.taylor
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- Dec 4, 2010
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And I agree.I think the second one.
But I'm asking -- I'm not sure of this.
But couldn't it be the first one too?
Destined for BIG things, not like we'd have to worry if it were us or not.
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And I agree.I think the second one.
But I'm asking -- I'm not sure of this.
But couldn't it be the first one too?
Destined for BIG things, not like we'd have to worry if it were us or not.
Atpollard,Not starting an argument, but what does "God wills" mean? How can the God who speaks something and it springs into existence, wish/desire an event that does not come to pass? Does that not begin to step on the toes of 'omnipotent'?
Like I said, I am not attempting to convince you or start an argument. I just wondered how YOU reconcile that or what you mean by the "will" of God.
PZ
If God DOES have two wills, it's still only one will...
If HE WILLS to also have Permissive Will, isn't this still under His SOVEREIGN WILL??
His S.W. covers all...
God's sovereignty is found in Job 38:4
Sorry PZ
I answered the first post of yours before I read this.
Looks like we agree...
Not yet.....Anyway, there are no new prophecies so my idea wouldn't even count anymore.
Hi CWBNot yet.....
Acts 2
17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:
18 And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy:
19 And I will show wonders in heaven above, and signs in the earth beneath; blood, and fire, and vapor of smoke:
20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before that great and notable day of the Lord comes:
21 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.
Well played! Well played!Hi CWB
You're right, of course.
But did you have to remind me??
When I get to eschatological scripture, I zoom right over it, just like Papa would do...
JK
(but not that I know nothing of eschatology)
My only point was that it was whom He "foreknew"... which was a response to this remark you made.
Please consider that before man was created, God foreknew those He predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son.
That's the only point I was making.
I was not suggesting that they were predestined to salvation.
I'm on the other side of that "belief".
JLB
How come some covenants are unilateral and unconditional unless God made the decision to achieve His purpose no matter what?
Not yet.....
Acts 2
17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:
18 And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy:
19 And I will show wonders in heaven above, and signs in the earth beneath; blood, and fire, and vapor of smoke:
20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before that great and notable day of the Lord comes:
21 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.
It is all apart of His plan I believe. I think the different covenants were different aspects of the totality - ending with the New. As in, they all pointed to the "New Covenant". Each building upon the other.
Are you saying we circumcise ourselves(spiritually) like Abraham did physically? No worries if not. I just knind of got the impression for some reasonThe New Covenant is the Abrahamic Covenant that has been "refreshed" or "renewed".
IOW it's not a brand new Covenant.
The law was added to this Covenant temporarily, until the Seed should come.
The Lord who made Covenant with Abraham became flesh, and fulfilled His part of blood letting.
Abraham's part was circumcision.
JLB
Are you saying we circumcise ourselves(spiritually) like Abraham did physically? No worries if not. I just knind of got the impression for some reason
So he’s starting to talk about salvation here, and he starts with election. Back in eternity past, God chose who would be saved, and He did it, verse 2 says, according to His foreknowledge. Foreknowledge doesn’t mean that everybody acts independently, and God way back looked ahead and saw what they were going to do, and said, “Oh, so that’s what they’re going to do; if that’s what they’re going to do, this is what I’ll do.” Foreknowledge is a predetermined relationship. “Fore” means before we were ever born, before we ever had a choice, before we ever did or didn’t do anything, God predetermined to know us, in the same way that He says, “Israel only have I known.” It doesn’t mean that they’re the only people on the planet that He knows, it means they’re the only ones with whom He has personal relationship.
Hi Nathan,I thought about this more over the weekend. I had a thought that seems obvious, but I thought I would run it by you all to see what you make of it. I believe we have, for the most part, almost all come to the conclusion that God does predestine people. I think the division lies with the idea of strictly salvation vs purpose(role) in some aspect of the plan of salvation.
I tried to be as clear as I can with my thoughts. Please read them carefully before assuming I am saying something. One thought leads to another.
So I would like to revert back to the quote by John Macarthur;
It might seem simple, but here was my thought. If God chose us, before we were born, for salvation - wouldn't He have also known that we would have believed in Him? In other words, if God knew we would be born, wouldn't Him being God then have also known we would believe? Yet again in other words, would God only look to the fact we would be born - then no further - and base predestination on that?
It really doesn't make sense to me. If God knew we would be born, He would also know how we would respond to His call. So, if Macarthur is correct, then that means we have zero choice in salvation - one way or the other. It would also mean that not only does He predestine some to salvation, but others to hell - before they had done anything wrong. I cannot see how you can have one be true without the other being true. So - the end of the thought is - some humans will go to hell not based off sin, but rather based off the fact God wants them there.
You don't read that anywhere in the Bible. Man is specifically judged off what they do, not because they are predestined to go. So I cannot see how Macarthur's thoughts can be true.
Unless, of course, you throw in a third wheel of thought. That there are "some" that are predestined, and the rest get to choose between Christ and hell. If that's the case, I would love to see where that distinction is made, between those predestined and those who come to believe on their own choice. I have never seen the word "some" before predestined - distinguishing them apart from "others" who believe on their own.
I'd love some input on this.
Hi Nathan,
Your post no. 170 is a very good Reader's Digest version of the Covenants.
As far as MacArthru --- I don't know him and what he says up there in this post is very confusing to me.
I don't really understand what he's saying.
Because I foreknow something, does not mean I can change it or wish to or cause it.
This is even demonstrated in sci fi movies. A person tries to change the future, but CANNOT. It has already happened in time, it cannot be changed.
The real question would become this: If God foreknows that a person will be doomed to be lost, why make that person be born? Isn't He a good God? So He ALLOWS that person who will be lost to be born anyway? Why?
Chew on that for a while.
I think you're talking about Romans 9.That's kind of my thoughts also, but just a different angle. Not so much the good vs 'mean' side of looking, not that He allows the person to be born, but judges them before they are born.
I have never read a single passage where a person is judged before they are born. Sure, God does know who will do what in the end, but we always read that they are judged then - after they live their life.
MacArthur is stating that God decides before("fore") a person is born whether that person will be made to believe in Christ and made to be saved. But you can't have that without having the opposite of making people unable to believe and making them be eternally lost.
I think the idea of this comes from the passage in Romans which talks about vessels God makes, but that passage was an example Paul used to describe Gods plan for the Jews and Gentiles.
In context at least.
So I would like to revert back to the quote by John Macarthur;
So he’s starting to talk about salvation here, and he starts with election. Back in eternity past, God chose who would be saved, and He did it, verse 2 says, according to His foreknowledge. Foreknowledge doesn’t mean that everybody acts independently, and God way back looked ahead and saw what they were going to do, and said, “Oh, so that’s what they’re going to do; if that’s what they’re going to do, this is what I’ll do.” Foreknowledge is a predetermined relationship. “Fore” means before we were ever born, before we ever had a choice, before we ever did or didn’t do anything, God predetermined to know us, in the same way that He says, “Israel only have I known.” It doesn’t mean that they’re the only people on the planet that He knows, it means they’re the only ones with whom He has personal relationship.
It might seem simple, but here was my thought. If God chose us, before we were born, for salvation - wouldn't He have also known that we would have believed in Him? In other words, if God knew we would be born, wouldn't Him being God then have also known we would believe?