The point is, when you walk in the way of the Spirit you uphold (fulfill, satisfy) the requirements of the law of Moses.
I haven't found that scripture that says that.
You haven't acknowledged it because you decided to violate plain grammatical sense and redefine 'law', the one that gets upheld, in the last part of this verse:
"31 Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law." (Romans 3:31 NIV)
"18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law (meaning not in violation of, and therefore, condemned by the law)." (Galatians 5:18 NIV)
18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.
Galatians 5:18
Let's use the word you added to the last scripture. [Requirements]
But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under
the requirement's of the law.
How does being led by the Spirit relieve me of the requirement to 'not steal', or the requirement to have my sins atoned for through blood sacrifice?
But I can easily see how being led by the Spirit and having faith in Christ relieves me of the old
WAY of fulfilling those requirements.
Maybe you can make your case better by explaining what laws DO get abolished and nullified and violated when we walk by the Spirit. And I'll show you how they do not get violated and destroyed, but rather fulfilled, just as Jesus said he came to do.
I don't have a case. I have what the scripture says...
19 What purpose then does the law serve?
It was added because of transgressions,
till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. Galatians 3:19
The Seed has come and fulfilled the law, as the law was a temporary shadow that vanished in the Light of the Son.
So when the seed came, 'do not committ adultery', 'be circumcised', and blood sacrifice for atonement, for example, were only an added, temporary
requirement that goes away now that Christ has appeared?
Doesn't it make more sense that the
WAY these eternal requirements are fulfilled is what was temporarily added until Christ's appearance?
The law of Moses was never ever intended for Gentiles who live outside of the land of Israel.
http://www.biblestudytools.com/nkjv/romans/3.html#fn-descriptionAnchor-g 19 Now we know that whatever the law says,
it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
Romans 3:19
Have Gentiles who live in the USA ever been under the Law of Moses?
In regard to the literal way and system of the law of Moses, no, of course. That
way demands that many of the requirements of God be literally fulfilled in that
way in the Land.
But it is clear that 'do not murder', and 'do not steal', for example, are laws of Moses that the entire gentile world is 'under' the condemnation of, and will be judged by (Paul says so) whether they live in Jerusalem, or Defiance, Ohio.
You HAVE to distinguish between the WAY of the law of Moses, and the requirements of the law of Moses when talking about who is, and who is not subject to, and/or 'under' the law of Moses.
for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, Romans 2:14
Though we are not under the law of Moses, nor do we have the law of Moses, we have a nature that Loves God and loves our neighbor, even though we are not under the law of Moses.
Loving God and loving your neighbor was a Law of God's Kingdom long before Moses was born!
The law of Moses does not has provision to remove sin.
The requirement for blood sacrifice is spelled out right in the law of Moses. What you are saying is the WAY of the law of Moses does not have the capacity or provision within itself to completely remove all of the sin the law itself prohibits. Again, it is the WAY of the law of Moses as an inadequate way to deal with sin--that is what you are arguing about, NOT THE
REQUIREMENT OF THE LAW ITSELF FOR BLOOD FOR THE ATONEMENT OF SIN.
This is the great stumbling block of the Jews. They don't understand the irony of the law, that the law does not have the provision to deal completely with it's own requirements. The WAY of the law of Moses is what is inadequate, not the REQUIREMENTS of the law of Moses.
The law of Moses does not make a person righteous.
The law of Moses does not make a person justified.
The law of Moses does not make a person free from guilt.
The law of Moses is not of faith.
What does the law of Moses do for us today?
JLB
"15...how from infancy you have known the Holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus. 16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, 17 so that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work." (2 Timothy 3:15-17 NIV)
What scriptures do you think Paul is talking about, my Zondervan NIV Bible?
And this teaching, rebuking, and correcting, and training in righteousness is EXACTLY what James does in his letter.
(The 'law keepers' that I used to debate so fiercely would be so proud of me right now, seeing me use the same arguments they used! :yes)