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The Nicene Creed

Yes, I worship YHWH (who is the Father). I totally reject your inference that the Lord of 2Co 3:17 is YHVH the Son.

The Lord (YHVH - THE Kyrios) IS the Spirit....though I know YHVH is also the Word/Son that is NOT what this passage is saying (I do not say the Spirit is the Son)...if you get a good concordance and look up whenever it says the LORD it is actually the Tetragrammaton (YHVH) which later translators translate Yah-hoveh (the Lord who is) hence Yahoveh....

And we were talking about the Word as a personage (as John used the term)....YHVH is simultaneously the one who sends(the Father) and the one He has sent (the Word/Son)....(see Isaiah 48:12-16 and Zechariah 2:10-11)

So i have no idea where you get that I was saying this passage (2 Cor 3:17) speaks of the Son....it speaks of the Spirit....the Father is not the Son or the Spirit, the Son is not the Father or the Spirit, and the Spirit is not the Father or the Son....there is only one LORD and He is all of these. The one Lord is Father, Son/Word, and the Holy Spirit....all are called Lord and there are not three Lords only one and His name is YHVH and He is The Lord who is (Yah-hoveh)
 
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I was asked "Could you please explain what it means to you that Jesus is the "Word" of God?" That phrase, as it pertains to Yeshua, is only found in Rev 19:13

No, the phrase also appears in 1 John and John 1....the Word is with God and the Word is God...the Greek word Logos was the closest appellation in that tongue to convey this concept...John was a Hebrew not a Greek. When we translate into another language there is not always an appropriate word for word available....in the Nordic tongue there was no word equivilent to the Hebrew idea of "faith" so they had to use the word that refers to when the Pilot of a ship straps himself to the wheel and rudder during a tempest at sea. This conveyed in that culture the idea of how totally we are to cleave to the Lord.
 
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And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

The vesture here is the body of flesh that He was robed in (hence "clothed")...."His name shall be called" refers to His shem (again John is Hebrew...this is not speaking of a literal name like Bob or Phil)...it speaks to the essence of who He is (refer to John 1:1)....His reputation, majesty, authority, power...John is telling the Church that this one dipped in blood is none other than God manifest....

Ex. Deuteronomy tells us YHVH (Yahoveh) is THE Lord of lords (the not a)....David agrees in Psalm 136 (and others elsewhere) so now read why the Lamb is able to overcome Satan and his host/minions in Revelations 17:14

"...because He is THE Lord of lords....", thus since only YHVH is the THE Lord of lords yet the LAMB IS THE Lord of lords, do the math....

Now since there cannot be TWO Lord of lords they are the some ONE....if there were more than one Lord of lords they would have all used the indefinite pronoun (a) not the definite pronoun (the)...do you see now? Please think about this read the passages and pray and ignore your theology and grasp what the word actually says....
 
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I agree that G1080 can be used for being born in a figurative sense (being "born" again), but that, too, is referring to a post creation phenomenon. Do you know of a verse where G1080 was used for a pre-creation phenomenon?

Even if I were a trinitarian and believed he preexisted eternally, I still would not believe he was "begotten" (γεννηθέντα) before creation because that word does not bear that meaning. The phase "begotten of the Father" is Scriptural, but when the words "before all worlds" is added, the entire phrase becomes unscriptural.

If you were a trinitarian and believed God the Son existed before the creation of all worlds, then you would have to accept that the distinction between God the Father and God the Son, within the Trinity, existed prior to creation. The writers of the Nicene Creed believed their work was scriptural because they acknowledged a different meaning for 'begotten' than you have settled on. A correct meaning must take into account the scriptures of John 1:1-18 and what they say about Jesus.

In the Septuagint, G1080 is used by The LORD as He contrasts the majesty of Himself with that of Job.

Job 38:4 ¶ Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding.
...
Job 38:21 - Knowest thou it, because thou wast then born? or because the number of thy days is great?​

In context, this contrast between God and man suggests that the idea of being 'G1080' prior to creation is not unthinkable. Impossible perhaps for a mere created man, but not impossible for The LORD.
 
You see, here we get back to what I was saying regarding "words". I hate to be simple about this. So you explained how the Hebrew and Greek words would allow you to worship a man. But, and I repeat, how do you get around the 1st Commandment?? How about Deuteronomy 6:4? You're concentrating on specific scripture to support your view, but the OVERALL picture is that we are NOT to worship a man.
Exo 20:2 I am YHWH thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.
Exo 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods (elohim) before me.​

I do not put any "elohim" before YHWH. He is number one in my life. Yeshua is number 2 as was true for the Apostle Paul as well;

1Co 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God (Father YHWH).


Deu 6:4 "Hear, O Israel! The LORD (YHWH) is our God, the LORD (YHWH) is one! (NASB)​

This verse teaches us that there is only one YHWH and He is our God. Our God eventually sent His Son and commanded the angels to worship him and, by extension, for us to worship him.

The Holy Spirit did not have a beginning. Being God, and believing that God always existed, then the Holy Spirit always existed too. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit cannot be separated. They always were.

Wondering
I agree that the Holy Spirit has always existed because the Father has always existed and it is part of the Father. Whether or not the Son always existed is an entirely different issue.
 
To your concept reply:

I agree that concepts are made up of words. The three creeds (4 really) were created by studying words in the N.T. The creeds is what Christians are supposed to believe. Yes. It required much study.

But now that study in complete. The words have been studied. The creeds have been written.
The concepts have been created.

We need only to accept them if we're to call ourselves a Christian.

Wondering
It may be true that "Christians are supposed to believe" the creeds of men, but disciples of Yeshua need not. His disciples are to believe every word of God (YHWH), especially Scripture (Mt 4:4).

While the authors of the creed may have desired to follow words in Scripture, they failed regarding some words like "begotten".
 
And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

The vesture here is the body of flesh that He was robed in (hence "clothed")...."His name shall be called" refers to His shem (again John is Hebrew...this is not speaking of a literal name like Bob or Phil)...it speaks to the essence of who He is (refer to John 1:1)....His reputation, majesty, authority, power...John is telling the Church that this one dipped in blood is none other than God manifest....
Where you say "refer to John 1:1", I would say "refer to John 1:14. I would also say, "John is telling the Church that this one dipped in blood is none other than the Word of God manifest...."

Ex. Deuteronomy tells us YHVH (Yahoveh) is THE Lord of lords (the not a)....David agrees in Psalm 136 (and others elsewhere) so now read why the Lamb is able to overcome Satan and his host/minions in Revelations 17:14

"...because He is THE Lord of lords....", thus since only YHVH is the THE Lord of lords yet the LAMB IS THE Lord of lords, do the math....

Now since there cannot be TWO Lord of lords they are the some ONE....if there were more than one Lord of lords they would have all used the indefinite pronoun (a) not the definite pronoun (the)...do you see now? Please think about this read the passages and pray and ignore your theology and grasp what the word actually says....
Do you apply that same logic to the title "King of kings"? Yeshua is called "King of kings" in that same verse (Rev 17:14). Is there only one "King of kings"? No (Ezr 7:12; Eze 26:7).

YHWH is the ultimate "Lord of lords". At the appointed time, He made His Son Yeshua to be "Lord" (Acts 2:36). He gave that "Lord" authority/power over everything in heaven and earth (Mt 28:18). That would include power over all other lords. The only thing he was not given power/authority over is the ultimate "Lord of lords" (his Father YHWH) (1Co 15:24-27).
 
If you were a trinitarian and believed God the Son existed before the creation of all worlds, then you would have to accept that the distinction between God the Father and God the Son, within the Trinity, existed prior to creation. The writers of the Nicene Creed believed their work was scriptural because they acknowledged a different meaning for 'begotten' than you have settled on. A correct meaning must take into account the scriptures of John 1:1-18 and what they say about Jesus.
Where did they come up with this other meaning for "begotten"? Certainly not from Scripture. Therefore, it is unscriptural.

In the Septuagint, G1080 is used by The LORD as He contrasts the majesty of Himself with that of Job.

Job 38:4 ¶ Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding.
...
Job 38:21 - Knowest thou it, because thou wast then born? or because the number of thy days is great?​

In context, this contrast between God and man suggests that the idea of being 'G1080' prior to creation is not unthinkable. Impossible perhaps for a mere created man, but not impossible for The LORD.
I don't see what you are seeing. All I see is the word G1080 referencing Job's birth.
 
I was asked "Could you please explain what it means to you that Jesus is the "Word" of God?" That phrase, as it pertains to Yeshua, is only found in Rev 19:13

No, the phrase also appears in 1 John and John 1....the Word is with God and the Word is God...
The phrase "the Word of God" is not the same as the phrase "the Word is with God" or the phrase "the Word is God". I was only addressing the former.
 
It may be true that "Christians are supposed to believe" the creeds of men, but disciples of Yeshua need not. His disciples are to believe every word of God (YHWH), especially Scripture (Mt 4:4).

While the authors of the creed may have desired to follow words in Scripture, they failed regarding some words like "begotten".
Yes. Words are a problem. That's why there are Christian theologians to explain CONCEPTS.

Example:
John 3.17
What does it mean? Sounds like the WHOLE WORLD will be saved by Jesus. And, some really believe this. But it's not traditional Christianity.

Jeremiah 1:5
What does it mean? Sounds like we existed in heaven before we were born. And some believe this. But it's not traditional Christianity.

You requote Deuteronomy 6:4 with the correct word for LORD. I agree. That's my whole point. There is one Yahweh but there are 3 distinct personifications in the one LORD.

The early church wanted to preserve and hand down what the apostles knew and taught. The creeds expressed the faith of Christianity. Why was the first creed even written in 325? You must know that it was due to the heresy of Arianism. Those that believed Jesus was a man. So the early church wrote the creed to clarify exactly who Jesus was and who the Holy Spirit was.

The 381 Creed starts out that we believe in ONE God, the Father Almighty. Since we believe in One God and only God can be worshipped, Jesus must be God. This is why we're called CHRISTians - because we believe in Christ and worship Him as God. Are we breaking Deut 6.4? No. Did Jesus really resurrect from the dead? If Yes, he's God - if No, we're believing a lie and are the most miserable of creatures.
1 Corinthians 15:12-19

Hebrews 1:2-3
God has spoken to us through His Son, the EXACT representation of His nature. What is "nature." it's the very being of a person, it's the essence of that person. In God's case it's the essence of holiness and the glory of God.

1 Colossians 1:15.19
Verse 17: " He (Jesus) is before all things."

If he was before all things, and John 1:1 says He was the word of God, if you put this together it means He always existed.

John 8:58 "Before Abraham was, I AM."
He even used the words from the burning bush,
Exodus 3:14
Yahweh said "I AM"
Jesus said "I AM" Meaning He was God in essence and in nature as was Yahweh. But several times Jesus distinquished Himself from God the Father, Yahweh, so He did not mean that He was the Father - thus again the 3 persons and we get back to the Trinity.

So we could take begotten to mean whatever we want, we could use a dictionary, or we could use the explanation the Apostles gave, and I tend to trust them and what they meant when using the word begotten.

Wondering
 
It may be true that "Christians are supposed to believe" the creeds of men, but disciples of Yeshua need not. His disciples are to believe every word of God (YHWH), especially Scripture (Mt 4:4).

While the authors of the creed may have desired to follow words in Scripture, they failed regarding some words like "begotten".

PAGE TWO

Well. This is the problem I'm speaking to.
Christians are supposed to believe what Christianity intends.
You mention disciples of Yeshua. Don't you believe the apostles and those that came after them, were disciples of Yeshua? You believe you know more than they did as to what begotten meant back then and to those who had lived with Jesus for over 3 years and had lived with Him and witnesssed the resurrection?

Especially scripture? Mathew 4:4
You don't think the disciples of that time, Jews, knew the scriptures? They were closer to O.T. times and I have to believe they knew them a lot better than we do today. When Mathew wrote his gospel, he mentioned O.T. verses more than any other writer. He was writing FOR Jews and knew they'd understand what he was intending without having to explain. For instance Mathew 5:21 and all the "you have heard it said" verses and many others as I'm sure you know.

So you see what I mean about words. We're all hung up on the word begotten. But if you believed in traditional christianity, the problem would not present itself. Because the Trinity would be accepted and we wouldn't have to worry about this word, begotten.

Wondering
 
Yes. Words are a problem. That's why there are Christian theologians to explain CONCEPTS.

Example:
John 3.17
What does it mean? Sounds like the WHOLE WORLD will be saved by Jesus. And, some really believe this. But it's not traditional Christianity.

Jeremiah 1:5
What does it mean? Sounds like we existed in heaven before we were born. And some believe this. But it's not traditional Christianity.

You requote Deuteronomy 6:4 with the correct word for LORD. I agree. That's my whole point. There is one Yahweh but there are 3 distinct personifications in the one LORD.

The early church wanted to preserve and hand down what the apostles knew and taught. The creeds expressed the faith of Christianity. Why was the first creed even written in 325? You must know that it was due to the heresy of Arianism. Those that believed Jesus was a man. So the early church wrote the creed to clarify exactly who Jesus was and who the Holy Spirit was.

The 381 Creed starts out that we believe in ONE God, the Father Almighty. Since we believe in One God and only God can be worshipped, Jesus must be God. This is why we're called CHRISTians - because we believe in Christ and worship Him as God. Are we breaking Deut 6.4? No. Did Jesus really resurrect from the dead? If Yes, he's God - if No, we're believing a lie and are the most miserable of creatures.
1 Corinthians 15:12-19

Hebrews 1:2-3
God has spoken to us through His Son, the EXACT representation of His nature. What is "nature." it's the very being of a person, it's the essence of that person. In God's case it's the essence of holiness and the glory of God.

1 Colossians 1:15.19
Verse 17: " He (Jesus) is before all things."

If he was before all things, and John 1:1 says He was the word of God, if you put this together it means He always existed.

John 8:58 "Before Abraham was, I AM."
He even used the words from the burning bush,
Exodus 3:14
Yahweh said "I AM"
Jesus said "I AM" Meaning He was God in essence and in nature as was Yahweh. But several times Jesus distinquished Himself from God the Father, Yahweh, so He did not mean that He was the Father - thus again the 3 persons and we get back to the Trinity.

So we could take begotten to mean whatever we want, we could use a dictionary, or we could use the explanation the Apostles gave, and I tend to trust them and what they meant when using the word begotten.

Wondering
I am not here to discuss the deity of Christ or whether or not he preexisted.

Concerning your last sentence, if you trust the explanation of the Apostles, then you will agree that the word "begotten" (translated from the Greek γεννηθεντος, refers to a post creation event.
 
Exo 20:2 I am YHWH thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.
Exo 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods (elohim) before me

Then the Angel of the Lord came up from Gilgal to Bochim, and said: “I led you up from Egypt and brought you to the land of which I swore to your fathers; and I said, ‘I will never break My covenant with you. Judges 2:1

JLB
 
Where you say "refer to John 1:1", I would say "refer to John 1:14. I would also say, "John is telling the Church that this one dipped in blood is none other than the Word of God manifest...."


Do you apply that same logic to the title "King of kings"? Yeshua is called "King of kings" in that same verse (Rev 17:14). Is there only one "King of kings"? No (Ezr 7:12; Eze 26:7).

YHWH is the ultimate "Lord of lords". At the appointed time, He made His Son Yeshua to be "Lord" (Acts 2:36). He gave that "Lord" authority/power over everything in heaven and earth (Mt 28:18). That would include power over all other lords. The only thing he was not given power/authority over is the ultimate "Lord of lords" (his Father YHWH) (1Co 15:24-27).

He is the true King of kings but this phrase was taken by many kings, but when the Torah says He is THE Lord of lords it excludes all others because the first usage is actually referring specifically to YHVH in the Hebrew ("For the LORD your God IS...the Lord of lords", and yet the word says the Lamb is. So unless the LORD your God is also the Lamb the scriptures lied)
 
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γεννηθεντος is a NT Greek word. It is defined in Matthew 2:1 as meaning "born" (to a woman). The creed authors had no authority or right to redefine a Biblical word in order to support their belief. They did not "knowingly settle on nonsense". It seems to me they knowingly ignored the Biblical definition.
γεννάω
a beget: 23.58
b give birth: 23.52
c be born of: 13.56
d cause to happen: 13.129
γεννάω: unit
γεννάω ἄνωθεν
be born again 41.53​

Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996). Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: based on semantic domains (electronic ed. of the 2nd edition., Vol. 2, p. 50). New York: United Bible Societies.

1164 γεννάω (gennaō): vb.; ≡ DBLHebr 3528, 4580; Str 1080; TDNT 1.665—1. LN 23.58 procreate, bring into being, become the father of (Mt 1:2); 2. LN 23.52 give birth (Lk 1:13); 3. LN 13.56 be born of, involving of a radical change in the whole person (Jn 3:5); 4. LN 13.129 cause to happen, produce, give rise to (2Ti 2:23); 5. LN 41.53 γεννάω ἄνωθεν (gennaō anōthen), be born again or be born from above (Jn 3:3, 7+)​

Swanson, J. (1997). Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Greek (New Testament) (electronic ed.).

γεννάω, γέννημα, γεννητός, ἀρτιγέννητος, ἀναγεννάω

γεννάω.

Like τίκτω, this term is used of the “begetting” of the father and the “bearing” of the mother, not only in Gk. generally,1 but also in the LXX and NT Figur. it is used of producing without birth, as at 2 Tm. 2:23 and also Joseph.: γεννᾶται ἐν αὐτῇ φοῖνιξ ὁ κάλλιστος (Ant., 9, 7, cf. Bell., 4, 469); in the religious sense of the old covenant (Gl. 4:24), of Paul in the self-protestations at 1 C. 4:15; Phlm. 10. γεννᾶν with God as subj., Prv. 8:25; Ps. 2:7 (quoted in Lk. 3:22 [west. reading]; Ac. 13:33; Hb. 1:5; 5:5). γεννᾶσθαι (pass.) in Jn. 1:13; 3:3, 5, 6, 8; 1 Jn. 2:29; 3:9; 4:7; 5:1, 4, 18.​


A. “Begetting” as an Image of the Relationship of Master and Disciple.


The use of the terms father and son with reference to the master and disciple may be seen already in 2 K. 2:12. At the time of Jesus it was customary for the rabbi to call his pupil and the ordinary member of the community “my son,” cf. the style of address used by Jesus and Mt. 23:8–10. There was here no thought of begetting, as shown by the application to favoured members of the community. It was simply designed to emphasise the superiority and warmth of the “father” on the one side and the reverence of the “son” on the other. The more significant the achievement of the master and his relation to the disciple, the more he is compared to a father, b. San., 19b: “When a man teaches the son of another the Torah, the Scripture treats him as if he had begotten him”; cf. also b. Sanh., 99b. Paul goes further than this when he not only calls himself father but speaks of his γεννᾶν (cf. Gl. 4:19). This is usually derived from the Mysteries. But the mode of expression does not really imply more than that of the Rabbis. Again, though the mystagogue is called the father of the initiates, the word γεννᾶν is not actually used. Moreover, Paul begets through the Gospel (1 C. 4:15), through public preaching, not through a mystery. Furthermore, he begets whole communities and not just individual believers. In 1 C. 4:15 and Phlm. 10 we simply have a rhetorical development of the usual Jewish expression. It is wholly in line with the emotional strength, forcefulness and metaphorical power of the language of Paul. Perhaps some of his contemporaries used similar phrases.​


Kittel, G., Bromiley, G. W., & Friedrich, G. (Eds.). (1964–). Theological dictionary of the New Testament (electronic ed., Vol. 1, pp. 665–666). Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans.

Wow! I'm sorry to hear that. Here I was thinking you based your beliefs on inspired Scripture rather than the creeds of men.
The Creeds are succinct statements of what Scriptures say, so do not play insipid games about that, OK?


How does one prove something is unscriptural if it is not found in Scripture? Since the creed's use of γεννηθεντος in reference to the Son being begotten before creation is not found in Scripture, it cannot be proven to be Scriptural. The very fact that Scripture does not use γεννηθεντος or any variant of it in reference to the Son prior to creation is proof itself that the creed made an unscriptural statement.
More silly games! The word in Greek is a COMPOUND WORD. The root word was given in a previous statement, which you refused to acknowledge. FYI I did a word search on γεννηθεντος in my software, and it did not come up, excepting for the root word, which I produced, and you did not accept. Instead you merely produced something that you cut and pasted from without any attribution, which is a plagiarism issue


Why do you say γεννηθεντος is not in the New Testament when it is found in Matthew 2:1 referring to Yeshua's birth in Bethlehem?

Mat 2:1 του G3588 δε G1161[NOW] ιησου G2424[JESUS] γεννηθεντος G1080(G5685)[HAVING BEEN BORN] εν G1722[IN] βηθλεεμ G965 της G3588[BETHLEHEM] ιουδαιας G2449[OF JUDEA,] εν G1722[IN] ημεραις G2250["THE" DAYS] ηρωδου G2264[OF HEROD] του G3588[THE] βασιλεως G935[KING,] ιδου G2400(G5628)[BEHOLD,] μαγοι G3097[MAGI] απο G575[FROM] ανατολων G395["THE" EAST] παρεγενοντο G3854(G5633)[ARRIVED] εις G1519[AT] ιεροσολυμα G2414[JERUSALEM,]​
Very simple, you STILL do not recognize the fact that it is a compound word, and you were insisting that it was a straight forward word from Kolne Greek

2 Τοῦ δὲ Ἰησοῦ γεννηθέντος ἐν Βηθλέεμ τῆς Ἰουδαίας ἐν ἡμέραις Ἡρῴδου τοῦ βασιλέως, ἰδοὺ μάγοι ἀπὸ ἀνατολῶν παρεγένοντο εἰς Ἱεροσόλυμα

Nestle, E., Nestle, E., Aland, B., Aland, K., Karavidopoulos, J., Martini, C. M., & Metzger, B. M. (1993). The Greek New Testament (27th ed., Mt 2). Stuttgart: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft.

Notice:
For all your bluster, you STILL have not proved your point in the OP, and until you learn........................ never mind. I will stay away from snarky comments.
 
I am not here to discuss the deity of Christ or whether or not he preexisted.

Concerning your last sentence, if you trust the explanation of the Apostles, then you will agree that the word "begotten" (translated from the Greek γεννηθεντος, refers to a post creation event.
Jocor,
Regarding my last sentence: The Nicene Creed goes on to say "Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father. By whom all things were made."

If the Son of God made all things, this means the Son was there when God the Father, Yahweh, spoke them into existence, and Jesus, the Word of God, created them.

If Jesus created what God spoke, how could this be a post-creation event??

In the Apostle's Creed, the word "begotten" is left out. Either they realized what a mistake it was and the confusion it caused, or it's a conspiracy to uphold the doctrine of the Trinity.

The conspiracy theory is difficult to uphold since the word "begotten" was used at the same time that people like Augustine were explaining the Trinity. Which even he did not find easy to do.

Wondering
 
Then the Angel of the Lord came up from Gilgal to Bochim, and said: “I led you up from Egypt and brought you to the land of which I swore to your fathers; and I said, ‘I will never break My covenant with you. Judges 2:1

JLB
As Yahweh's representative/messenger/shaliach, the angel speaks the words of Yahweh in the first person. The angel is NOT YHWH.
 
He is the true King of kings but this phrase was taken by many kings, but when the Torah says He is THE Lord of lords it excludes all others because the first usage is actually referring specifically to YHVH in the Hebrew ("For the LORD your God IS...the Lord of lords", and yet the word says the Lamb is. So unless the LORD your God is also the Lamb the scriptures lied)
Both Torah and the NT (1Co 15) exclude all others. Yeshua is the Lord of all human Lords. Yahweh is the Lord of all Lords, including Yeshua. Yahweh is Yeshua's Lord just as Yahweh is Yeshua's God.
 
Both Torah and the NT (1Co 15) exclude all others. Yeshua is the Lord of all human Lords. Yahweh is the Lord of all Lords, including Yeshua. Yahweh is Yeshua's Lord just as Yahweh is Yeshua's God.

Psalm 40:7
Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book it is written of me,

Hebrews 10:
7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.
8 Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;
9 Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.
10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins:
12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

In the volume of the scriptures it is written of and BY Jesus.

Where we see any "Word of God" in the scripture it is the Word of Christ, Jesus. Even where any "quote of God, Speaking" that Word is the Spirit of Christ, Jesus, speaking.

Jesus is the entire "Expression" and "Image" of God Himself, into this present creation. Where and when God Speaks, it is the Son who speaks His Words.

No man has seen God at any time. God is A Spirit. The Word of God and the Spirit of God Himself is expressed and Imaged in The Son.

This may seem difficult to some. But this is how "Christians" see matters of God, The Father and His Son and His Spirit.

Expressions, yet One. The little triangle thingy that gets used to show this is as good as it gets. Yet even that, in saying "is not" appears to make a disconnect where there really is no disconnect available. In the attempts of disconnect it is trying to show the Expressions, yet maintain One God.

If we observe the above from Hebrews, yes it is JESUS who makes Perfect Forever by the sacrifice of His Body. Making Perfect Forever can only be the Work of God Himself, in Christ. And this we see, by faith in Him.

I might even term Jesus as a throttling DOWN of God Himself in order for "us" to understand, or to not be destroyed by Pure Glory and Majesty of the Immense Immeasurable God, the Spirit.

Yet the Fullness of God was and Is, "In Him." The early church fathers did see this quite rightly as a Great Mystery, inclusive of Paul who made that observation for them to stake their sights upon.

This is a matter the Jews could not see or fathom. It is a matter that is still not fathomed today by any who denigrate The Son. How is it that God could appear in a BODY? That appearance, that Image, that expression is termed, The Son.

The entire VOLUME of the scriptures is entirely The Son, the Spirit of Christ. God's Own Expression into creation.

Titus 3:4
But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,

1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

Even more, where we see the annulment of the first Covenant to establish the second, this is saying that EVERY WORD OF GOD changed. How is this so? Every Word of God was made FLESH. He is that second, established. His Word was the first covenant. That same Word was made flesh in the second covenant. That was the CHANGE in the LAW, The Word of God, made flesh.

When the Spirit of Christ dwells in us, technically speaking, so does Every Word of God abide 'within' us as well. And therefore it is impossible to deny a single Word of God, as is the blind practice of the many.

Hebrews 4:12
For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart.

The Law is, right now, written in our hearts by The Spirit of Christ, dwelling therein. Working His Work, as shown above in Hebrews.

And if we miss the dividing part, what can I say? It's quite entirely obvious and openly demonstrated, so much so that it can't be missed, even on the outside.
 
As Yahweh's representative/messenger/shaliach, the angel speaks the words of Yahweh in the first person. The angel is NOT YHWH.

I disagree. When "THE" Angel (not "an" angel) of the Lord appears to Moses HE expressly declares Himself to BE the I Am that I Am, the GOD of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Isaiah 63:8,9 tells us "For He said (referring to YHVH), Surely they are my people, children that will not lie: so he was their Savior (their Yesha). In all their affliction he was afflicted, and the angel of his presence saved them: in his love and in his pity he redeemed them; and he bare them, and carried them all the days of old."

This Angel (the YHVH-Ha'Mal'ak) IS YHVH. He IS the God of Abraham. Genesis 12:7 – “Then the LORD appeared to Abram…”
Genesis 17:1 - Abram was ninety-nine years old and YHVH appeared to Abram, and said unto him, “I Am God Almighty, walk before Me and be blameless“. (Abraham’s God is the Mighty God, see also Revelations 1:8)
Genesis 26:2 – “And YHVH appeared… “ unto Isaac
Genesis 26:24 - the Lord appeared unto him (Isaac) the same night, and He said, “I Am the God of Abraham your father, fear not, I Am with you, and will bless you, and multiply your seed for my servant Abraham’s sake.“

The Lord Himself appeared in many forms...His comings have been from everlasting.

Genesis 32:24 - “…and there a man wrestled (cleaving) with him (Jacob) until the break of day“. Please note, just the fact that Jacob is refusing to let Him go until He blesses him tells us that Jacob clearly recognized this person as being someone other than a mere man! Normally, He would have been seen as a potential enemy who Jacob would be trying to apprehend or stop, but Jacob is asking for a blessing. Would that be your response to a would be assailant?

Genesis 32:27,28 – Then this same being asks “What is your shem? And he said unto Him, ‘Jacob‘. Then he says, Your shem shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel, for as a prince you have striven with God…” With who? Did He just say or imply that He was God? Notice He does not say with “a” god or a godlike being (such as an ordinary angel)!

Genesis 32:30 tells us…”And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel…” Why? Well Jacob reveals, “for I have seen God ‘face to face’, and my life is preserved.”

In Genesis 28, Jacob makes a vow to his God, the only true God, yet YHVH Ha'Mal'ak makes it clear that it was Him to whom Jacob made the vow! Likewise in the story of Abraham, YHVH orders the sacrifice of Isaac, yet YHVH Ha'Mal'ak speaks to Abraham just in time, and even blesses Abraham because he has not withheld his “only son”, the son of promise, from Him (Genesis 22). Can't you see that The Angel of the LORD is YHVH (if He isn't the scriptures simply are not telling the truth), there are far too many examples to re-explain or ignore!

The Angel of the Lord says He IS YHVH....is He a liar? The devil perhaps pretending to be what he is not and accepting worship and sacrifice to himself? God forbid! No mere angel declares their self to be Him or accepts worship anywhere in scripture (except maybe Satan)
 
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