I believe that it is against the ToS to call someone a liar.
Out of one side of your mouth, you admit that the only true God is three Persons, whereas out of the other side of your mouth you contradict that truth by saying the only true God is not three Persons.
Yes, God is one Spirit (John 4:24, Ephesians 4:4) and therefore one Person.
In another sense, He is in fact three distinct Persons. The OP in my above linked post declares how.
In both scriptures
Matthew 11:25, and
Luke 10:21 Jesus is praying to his Father, Lord of Heaven and Earth. So these scriptures are not teaching us that it's Jesus, who is Father lord of Heaven and Earth
But in Ephesians 4:5 and in 1 Corinthians 8:6, we are told that there is one Lord.
So, if the Father be Lord, and Jesus be Lord, I conclude that they are the same Lord.
Is whatever you would refer to by your phrase, "separate person", somehow different from whatever you'd just call a "person" (sans your pseudo-modifier word, "separate")? If so, how so? If not, then why do you choose to say "separate person", inflating your speech/text with your superfluous word "separate", and choose to not just say "person", instead?
If God be three separate Persons, the conclusion is that He is three Gods. If they be merely distinct, as I postulate, then they can be one God.
When you say "He is three Gods", what three things are you calling "Gods"?
Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; if they be separate rather than distinct.
To whom are you referring by your phrase, "three Gods"? That is, whom are you saying someone believes in when you say he "believes in three Gods"?
Father, Son, and Holy Ghost as being separate rather than distinct Persons.
It's interesting to note that the Author of Hebrews says "his Son....by whom also he made the worlds" and does NOT say "the Word....by whom also he made the worlds".
The pre-existent Jesus is the Word. He descended to take on an added nature of human flesh. When He resurrected and ascended, He rose to fill all things (Ephesians 4:10); even to exist once again outside of time (Isaiah 57:15). In His resurrected form He is human and therefore can be defined as the Son. And He exists into eternity past. So, Jesus, as the Son, existed in the beginning when everything was created; and also took part in the creation of everything.
Neither
Romans 1:3, nor any other passage(s) in the Bible teach that Jesus was
created.
It does, according to the flesh (His humanity in the hypostatic union). Of course in His Deity He is the Father and uncreated. And Luke 1:35 also tells us that He was begotten in the incarnation.
According to what you have handed us here, labeling your doctrine "Trinitarian" is satan's <fify> way of denying the truth that your doctrine is not Trinitarian. So, thanks for the caveat!
My doctrine is in fact Trinitarian. And, this label is my way of denying the lie that my doctrine is not Trinitarian; not satan's way of denying the truth.
What you've handed us here is a mislabeling of your unitarianism by calling it "monotheism". It's not monotheism that is un-Biblical, it is your unitarianism that is un-Biblical.
I am not a unitarian. I believe that it is against the ToS to misrepresent someone's viewpoint.
Here, you have told us that your labeling of the truth that the Father IS NOT the Son/that the Son IS NOT the Father, by calling it "Tritheism", is satan's <fify> way of denying the truth that the Father IS NOT the Son/that the Son IS NOT the Father.
It is God's way of denying the lie that the Father IS NOT the Son and that the Son IS NOT the Father.
So, we could have one person being all three persons (a contradiction),
Not necessarily (see the OP in my thread that I have linked to in the post above).
or it could be Trinitarian, where all three persons are distinct.
That is what I am attempting to set forth.
For the diagram to be Trinitarian then the words "is not" must be between each of the persons as in the original diagram.
No; for in that you are purporting the Tritheistic view of mormonism rather than the true Trinity.
Even the creeds declare that the Persons in the Trinity are not separate but distinct.
Saying that the Father is not the Son is similar, although not identical, to saying that every father is not their own son.
What is true with man may not necessarily also be true with God.
I am correct in stating that if a person believes that God is a single person, an absolute unity, then they cannot, by definition, as I've given above, be a Trinitarian.
False. See my thread that I have linked to in the post above.
Each person is truly and fully God, being of the same substance that is the one God.
The same Spirit (John 4:24, Ephesians 4:4), would you also say?
John 1:18 is about the only begotten Son in heaven who came down from the Fathers presence as such an eyewitness. The Father is unbegotten. They are not the same person.
They are the same Spirit. Jesus is begotten in that He is come in flesh. Father and Son are distinct in that Jesus is come in flesh.
It is logically impossible that he was with the Father if he was the Father.
It is logically possible if you consider displacement between time and eternity (see also the OP of my thread that I have linked to in the post above).
Notice that "the only God" is "at the Father's side." This echoes
John 1:1 and logically cannot mean that Jesus (the Word) is the Father.
Jesus is "the Father come in flesh"...and can indeed be at the Father's side, being such.
Please reread what I wrote. Of course Jesus is God; that is something that Trinitarians fully affirm.
But in your presupposition, Jesus is either a 2nd God or else 1/3 of God.
That wasn't the first time nor the last. So, please tell me, on what planet or in what universe does "the Father is not the Son nor the Holy Spirit, nor is the Son the Holy Spirit," the same as saying "God is not the Father, not Son, or not Holy Spirit"? This is a serious question because in no universe are those two sentences saying the same thing. Your reply has completely twisted what I said.
I think that you have been deceived by your heretical diagram.
But you don’t believe the doctrine of the Trinity is correct; you don’t believe God is triune.
I do; and I also believe in His Oneness to the extent of Personhood; as God, being one Spirit (John 4:24, Ephesians 4:4), is a Person.
It also says Jesus was with God. How was he with himself in intimate relationship and communion?
Through the displacement between time and eternity.
Why are you so unwilling to address the plain and simple verses I have given?
What verses are those? I didn't see any verses.
Yes, but as I pointed out, you keep ignoring the middle clause of verse 1--"the Word was with God." No one is ever said to be with themself, never mind in intimate relationship and communion with themself. Ever. That is to speak nonsensically.
The Word is said to be with Himself; even God is said to be with Himself, in John 1:1.