Nope. Philippians 2:5-8 proclaims that Jesus was in the form of God.
I should have added additional verses, as the context shows that Jesus isn't the Father.
Php 2:9 Therefore
God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name,
Php 2:10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
Php 2:11 and every tongue confess that
Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (ESV)
Clearly, two distinct "persons," both being spoken of as God.
1 Corinthians 8:6, James 3:9 (kjv), and Ephesians 4:6 tell us that God is the Father.
They certainly tell us the Father is God, yes, but
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is
one God, the Father,
from whom are all things and
for whom we exist, and
one Lord, Jesus Christ,
through whom are all things and
through whom we exist. (ESV)
Two distinct "persons," with two distinct functions in creation. This is Paul's expansion on the Shema and shows that both the Son and the Father are the one God. It also points to the eternal pre-existence of the Son. Just as "from whom are all things" speaks of the Father's eternal existence prior to creation, so too does "through whom are all things" speaks of the Son's eternal existence prior to creation. Not that it was Paul's intention to make a proof of the Son's eternal pre-existence, but
if one wants to be consistent in their understanding of the verse, then there simply is no other way to understand it. The reasoning is sound.
James 3:9 is in dispute as to what the Greek text actually says--"Lord and Father" or "God, even the Father." Not that it matters as this is proof-texting. As is Eph 4:6. You cannot simply post verses that appear to show one thing while ignoring the rest of Scripture. This is what JWs and Mormons do and why they are in so much error.
As it is, you are pitting 1 Cor 8:6 against Eph 4:6. They cannot both teach what you claim they teach.
That is your presupposition.
No, I have shown this to be the case earlier in this thread.
I don't see John 1:1 or any other passage proclaiming that Jesus isn't the Father.
I have also shown several times in this thread that the Word simply
cannot be the Father, based on the Greek grammar.
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (ESV)
The word "was" is the Greek
en, which is a form of
eimi (I Am), and denotes a continuous action in the past. That is, when the beginning began (creation), the Word was already in existence; it is absolute existence, eternal preexistence.
Then when we look at "the Word was with God," it is the Greek
pros that is translated as "with." But that doesn't convey the full meaning; it isn't merely speaking of being together or near. It expresses “direction towards,” as in relationship and communion, implying intimacy. It is important to note here that in the Greek the article is present, so it reads, "the Word was with [the] God."
When it comes to "the Word was God," the article in the Greek is
not present. JW's use this to mean that the word was "a god," but that is false, as that is polytheism. If the article had been present then "Word" and "God" become interchangeable, and they are one and the same, which is the error of Oneness theology. But this is about the
logos, who the
logos is, not who God is, so John purposely doesn't use the article to avoid equating the two words. What it can only mean then, is that the Word was divine in nature.
There is only one understanding of this passage--the Word existed for eternity past in intimate relationship with another, who is God the Father (at a minimum), and the Word is divine in nature, making him also God.
John then makes it clear in verse 14 that "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us." That is, the Word,
not the Father, not
"[the] God," entered into time--Greek for "become" is
egeneto (same as "made" in verse 3)--and took on human flesh. This is all precisely what Paul is speaking of in Phil 2:5-8.
As you say, context is king.
Jhn 14:16, And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;
Jhn 14:17, Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
Jhn 14:18, I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
Here, Jesus refers to the Spirit of truth as "I" indicating that they are the same Person.
Not at all. Again, context. "Another" rules this out completely.
Of course, He is also "another" Comforter in that Jesus was there with the disciples, in the flesh; and the Holy Spirit would come and comfort them as a Spirit.
Another is another. If I eat a piece of cake for dessert and am asked if I would like another, I fully expect to get a different piece of cake from the same cake. What I don't expect is to somehow get the exact same piece that I just ate, nor do I expect to get a steak. I expect something that is similar yet different.
We cannot simply ignore plain language, figures of speech, and rules of grammar when we read the Bible.
