Haven't I explained why I believe Jesus inherited Mary's DNA,
which contained man's inherited sin nature?
(Both parents contribute to a baby's DNA.)
Hi Doug
I meant to post this earlier, but I had a power outage. It gave me more time to think this through. My head is in the clouds because I've been sick for a week and quit coffee since I couldn't stomach it while I was sick anyways. It's an adjustment for sure.
Anyways
I know the evidence of the sinful nature can be seen in the DNA, but how did you come to the conclusion that this is also the conduit by which the sinful nature is passed on?
It seems like a reasonable assumption, but then we can also ask, since mans DNA is different than a woman's, is it possible that God only meant for our sinful nature to be passed on through man only? Then we must ask, if it is passed on through the physical, the spiritual corruption, which is and was complete from the beginning, must also be the result of the physical. That seems backwards.
From the evidence in scripture. I know the sinful nature is passed on through Adam, but is this a once for all, leaving the door open for your interpretation? Also, I see evidence in scripture, that the physical part of our corruption has grown throughout history. Evidenced by how long people lived in the past. And one could argue circumstantially that part of the reason the Law of Moses came to be was to curb the effects of the physical corruption. That is, not marrying close relatives.
And Jewish tradition seems to hold to the idea that it is mans seed is the conduit. It's just tradition, but if true, that does establish the fact that people in the Jewish community seen the sin nature as uniquely passed down through man. Though, even if correct, that could just be a physical picture of a spiritual truth from and OT mind set.
You don't need to answer all this, I was just thinking out loud and wanted to write it down before I lost it. The first question is important though. Thanks.
Dave