Drew
Member
References to “forever†are not always intended to be taken literally. There is clear scriptural precedent for the use of such terms to denote finite periods of time. Consider this from Isaiah 34, describing the destruction of Edom,which we know has already occurred:
It will not be quenched night and day;
its smoke will rise forever.
From generation to generation it will lie desolate;
no one will ever pass through it again.
Clearly, fanciful poetic language is used to describe the destruction of Edom. We know that smoke does not rise from Edom today. Therefore,"forever" does not really mean forever here.
Another example from 1 Samuel:
"Then the man Elkanah went up with all his household to offer to the LORD the yearly sacrifice and pay his vow. But Hannah did not go up, for she said to her husband, "I will not go up until the child is weaned; then I will bring him, that he may appear before the LORD and stay there forever."
These examples are powerful evidence that the writers of Scripture sometimes use references to "eternality" and "forever" in a non-literal sense.
It will not be quenched night and day;
its smoke will rise forever.
From generation to generation it will lie desolate;
no one will ever pass through it again.
Clearly, fanciful poetic language is used to describe the destruction of Edom. We know that smoke does not rise from Edom today. Therefore,"forever" does not really mean forever here.
Another example from 1 Samuel:
"Then the man Elkanah went up with all his household to offer to the LORD the yearly sacrifice and pay his vow. But Hannah did not go up, for she said to her husband, "I will not go up until the child is weaned; then I will bring him, that he may appear before the LORD and stay there forever."
These examples are powerful evidence that the writers of Scripture sometimes use references to "eternality" and "forever" in a non-literal sense.