M
Mitspa
Guest
Unfortunately here is where we begin to get into interpretational differences. Firstly, since Scripture is good commentary on itsef, we know from other Scriptures that the word baptism is not always used of a literal immersion and also not always in water, so you cannot unqualifiedly try to associate the singular use of the word 'baptize' 1 Corinthians 12:13 with water baptism without good reason. For example "fire" is one other thing promised for a figurative immersion or baptism into, and obviously 'Spirit' was the other figurative substance into which one can be immersed (Matthew 3:11). From baptizo's root word bapto we also see that it has the general connotation 'dip', such as when Jesus dipped (bapto) his bread into the dish at the Last Supper (John 13:26). 1 Corinthians 12:13 very obviously describes a spiritual action of union (immersion) into the body of Christ by the (means or medium of the) Spirit, and a parallel passage in 1 Corinthians 10:2-4 with similar wording shows this:
"All were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea, all ate the same spiritual food, 4 and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them, and that Rock was Christ."
Compare 1 Corinthians 12:13:
"For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free—and have all been made to drink into one Spirit."
The "baptized into" terminology is figurative in both passages (the first essentially meaning "united together unto Moses" and the second "united together unto the body [of Christ]"), and also the "drink" is spiritual in both cases, not describing literal water.
I think you have it backwards to be honest. The only point of comparison between the Gentiles' and the Jews' salvation experience (other than the required element of faith/believing) specifically hinged on the evidence of the baptism with the Spirit.
"While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.
Then Peter answered, “Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?†48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then they asked him to stay a few days." (Acts 10:44-48)
Note that the "also" and "just as we have" both refer to the Holy Spirit being poured out on the Gentiles (which Peter associated with the baptism with the Spirit in the next chapter), and the water baptism only comes afterward and was never the object of the "also" or "just as we have" comparison.
Again in the next chapter:
"And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as upon us at the beginning. Then I remembered the word of the Lord, how He said, ‘John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ If therefore God gave them the same gift as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?â€
When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life." (Acts 11:15-18)
The "as upon us at the beginning" and "same gift as He gave us" that are speaking of the Spirit Baptism are the specific points of comparison between the Jews' experience and the Gentiles', not the water baptism, and clearly they are associated with what happened "when we believed". The allusion to water baptism is not given until the end in the form of not being able to "withstand" God in light of what He had already done, with what God had done (poured out the Spirit/baptized with the Spirit) being the whole point of comparison.
God Bless,
~Josh
I agree with your point!