Yes, there is implication. Been taught that the verse actually says so my whole life. But it is not clearly stated as such. I note Paul's immediate comparison of the reception of sin/death through Adam to it's contrasting reception of grace/life through Christ in verse 19. Are infants born with grace/life now through Christ or is some act of personal obedience required first? Same with sin/death, if they truly are "just as" each other. Are infants born with sin/death or is some act of personal disobedience required first? I say the later to both questions and note that Adam was naked/innocent until his personal disobedience occurred.
I believe that Christ now holds the keys to death. I would say that in either case faith and lack of faith precede obedience and disobedience. But I would like to say something about sin that I feel is appropriate to this discussion.
Whether right or wrong, I have come to see sin as "a direction" away from and in direct separation from God, as if God were a Light and every direction away from the light was into darkness. Therefore an act of sin is a step into darkness, and two steps is even farther into darkness. With each step the separation from Light increases as does the darkness.
Of course I am talking about the soul losing it's light and adulterating it with darkness. In this way sin can be described as not only an action, but also a measure of distance in separation from God, where God's influence is diminished through greater degrees of darkness. So that sinfulness becomes more powerful or sinful according to the measure of distance in separation from God that the soul is experiencing. 2 Corinthians 4:7. Mark 10:18.
My point is that there is a difference between sinfulness/depravity/iniquity and... sin/action/disobedience, which oftentimes gets lost in semantics. So it is that I believe that a child can be born with a degree of sinfulness and yet without him or her having never disobeyed. Exodus 34:7.
Romans 5:19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man, the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one, the many will be made righteous.
If the making of sinners through Adam is "just like" the making of the righteous through Christ, there is some level of obedience/disobedience required on the part of the many that infants/pre-born simply do not have the capability to perform, right?
I'm not sure what you would expect me to be able to say, because of course no action of obedience or disobedience could be carried out by a developing baby. But how does this prove or disprove whether or not we are born with sin/iniquity?
Moreover, I believe that the above scripture is meant to focus on the change in directions relative to God that affected all of mankind because of the two different Adams disobedience and obedience, one the fall of a corruptible soul and one a quickening spirit that is incorruptible. I see the disobedience and obedience as secondary events subject to their differing compositions. While pointing out that Adam's first step was provoked by the woman who was beguiled by the serpent, still it only took one step from one Adam to become corrupted.
So in the Grande scheme of things, we would probably never learn the value of God in relationship with the soul through obedience, since through ignorance of vanity we only became all the more vain in our obedience. Only through using our disobedience as proof of sinfulness in the flesh could God establish a comprehensive value of God, and reveal it to heaven and earth through mankind. Romans 3:7. 1 John 3:7. Therefore it makes sense that our weakness called sinfulness needs to be acknowledged categorically for God's power to be fully realized, otherwise why would scripture say this? 2 Corinthians 12:9.
Good point, altough Paul was a fully grown man at that time who'd been both disobedient and obedient multiple times over by that time in his life. If Paul would have said sin was in his members while in the womb (as people assume to be the case), there's a proof text for sure. But he's clearly talking about his adulthood struggles, not infancy. But then again, infants have flesh too. And minds...
It's reasonable to assume that Paul is giving his personal testimony as a grown man because it requires some maturity to articulate mature thoughts. However I can't say it proves anything so as to claim or disclaim sinfulness concerning infants, simply because he omitted describing his state of righteousness at infancy.
Even better point.
Romans 7:22 For I joyfully agree with the law of God in my inner person,
Do you think infants joyfully agree with the law of God in their inner person?
I can't say that an infant would understand what a law even is, but in a way I think they do agree with the law since I imagine they realize some value of Love in some basic capacity. His Word is the Light of every person born. John 1:9.
Romans 8:3 For what was impossible for the law, in that it was weak through the flesh, God did. By sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and concerning sin, he condemned sin in the flesh,
Yes, that's my point. In order to believe infants have sinful flesh at birth (prior to any obedience/disobedience) and are thus condemned if they die at birth, you'd need to also believe God's own Son had sinful flesh (like them) prior to His obedience. Luckily we don't have to find out what would have happened to grace/life through Christ should He have died at birth. But I do wonder if baby Jesus had died at birth, would his being in the likeness to sinful flesh have provided a path to grace. I think His obedience was required first.
First, I'm going to disregard the mention of condemnation, as I consider it a different matter which could easily be confused with the reason why God restricted access to the tree of Life.
So here's the problem I have with this matter. If there is no iniquity in every baby born, then it seems to me that death would have no power over them and the gates of death would have been broken by the first baby that died. So yes while scripture does say that Jesus did come in the likeness of sinful flesh, this does not mean he actually had sinful flesh, for he was conceived of the Holy Spirit and was without sin. 2 Corinthians 5:21, Hebrews 2:14.
How do they imply that infants have sin at birth? I don't see it:
1 John 1:8 If we say that we do not have sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.
1 John 1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with him and walk in the darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth.
6-10 (parallels) is talking about (once again) waling obedience versus disobedience choices that infants don't make.
I think we're all going to sin inevitably because we're not God, which is why I think that vanity appears in the creature and not in the Creator. Romans 3:23. If a highly gifted angel was susceptible to vanity, why should I presume that I am immune to vanity? Isaiah 30:28.
To believe the Gospel is obedience to the revelation of Truth. Humility and honesty is required to obey, and therefore to admit that I am a hopeless sinner apart from Christ is also obedience. To me, the thought that as a baby I can have sinfulness, only serves to glorify God alone, and yet will compel me to show mercy, grace and understanding without becoming vain. Only God could bring about such perfection that enables corruption to put on incorruption. We are a people who find ourselves in darkness and the Light had to be given by God to show us the way.
I appreciate your contributions, time amd effort on these threads.
Thank you and I'm sorry for the long post. I also enjoy the discourse. Your thoughts have caused me to rethink the matter deeply.