They "get there" via punctuation. : ) so if your coping then pasting they surprise us with a smile
TY reba.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
Strengthening families through biblical principles.
Focus on the Family addresses the use of biblical principles in parenting and marriage to strengthen the family.
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They "get there" via punctuation. : ) so if your coping then pasting they surprise us with a smile
Now you're using your noggin!
Keep thinking along those lines, and (slowly) read the whole book of Romans today, and I think you'll be on your way.
One correction, one cannot be righteous not only "having done no good," but also "having done no evil" as well:
Romans 9:11 (For [the children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth."
Ephesians 2:2 "Wherein in time past ye [all of mankind] walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
Ephesians 2:3 Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were BY NATURE the children of wrath, EVEN as others."
That is what the scriptures teach concerning "We all." We all are by nature children of God's wrath, simply because we all were created "marred in the hand of the Potter" as "children of disobedience...by nature the children of wrath."
Thank you for the greeting, and for engaging me in the discussion of Psalm 58:3.
Estranged actually refers to a separation in a relationship. It implies that at one time there was a relationship, but that the relationship has fallen apart.
However, what is most important about the verse is that the context is not refering to a sinful condition with which all people are born. The psalm is specifically contrasting the wicked against the righteous. Verse 3 is part of David's "rant" (to modernize the term) against unjust rulers and judges. He's using poetic imagery to support his case that they aren't just "good" people who have made some bad rulings. He is saying that these specific wicked men are corrupt to the very core of their beings.
It isn't a generalized statement about all of mankind. It can't be taken as such, either, because that is not he message of the psalm.
edit: This is in response to "for_his_glory".
That's because we do not inherit Adams sin as it is his sin alone he had to repent of just as we have to repent of our sins when it is revealed to us. A baby is conceived and born sinless until sin is recognized and found in them.
Hey!
Their argument seems to be one cannot be righteous having done no good but yet somehow one can be a sinner having done no sin.
Originally posted by Davies,
After Adam and in Adam, man contains a sin nature. That explains why we sin. Not only was man subjected to the consequences of Adam's sin, the whole of nature was subjected to it. The little ones may not have done evil or good, so suppose the question is what qualifies a person to go to Heaven. I believe the qualification is righteousness. You not only have to be without sin, you have to be righteous. People who are not able to do anything right due to age, or mental capacity, still don't qualify for Heaven because they are not righteous. So, I believe that babies and mentally disabled persons go to heaven because God imputes to them the righteousness of Jesus. I think it would be common sense that if a person doesn't have the ability to do what God commands, that God would be more than fair on their behalf. Considering the mountain of sin we do in light of God's forgiveness, it would be easy to see that God would be gracious to those who don't have the ability or the opportunity to sin. Every man born of Adam needs the blood of Jesus Christ to wash away that which is sinful, and be granted the righteousness of Jesus. Jesus was our representative, and there is no other way to the Father accept through Him.
Originally posted by Ernest T. Bass,
The verse says "many were made sinners" they ASSUME the many were made sinners unconditionally and against their will by inheriting Adam's sin. But nowhere in Rom 5 or elsewhere does Paul says men are sinners for inheriting another person's sins. Rom 5:12 Paul said all have sinned not all have inherited Adam's sin.
The problem they have with this verse is that if it's true that many were made sinners uncondtionally by Adam then it's also true that same many will be made righteous unconditionally by Christ. And they have Universalism with their wrong interpretation of this verse.
Hello, Davies.Good morning Ernest, BornAgain. I hope you guys are having a good day. I say that because it seems rare that we talk with each other. So, I like to be a little personal.
You are absolutely correct in your statement. After Adam and in Adam, man contains a sin nature. That explains why we sin. Not only was man subjected to the consequences of Adam's sin, the whole of nature was subjected to it. The little ones may not have done evil or good, so suppose the question is what qualifies a person to go to Heaven. I believe the qualification is righteousness. You not only have to be without sin, you have to be righteous. People who are not able to do anything right due to age, or mental capacity, still don't qualify for Heaven because they are not righteous. So, I believe that babies and mentally disabled persons go to heaven because God imputes to them the righteousness of Jesus. I think it would be common sense that if a person doesn't have the ability to do what God commands, that God would be more than fair on their behalf. Considering the mountain of sin we do in light of God's forgiveness, it would be easy to see that God would be gracious to those who don't have the ability or the opportunity to sin. Every man born of Adam needs the blood of Jesus Christ to wash away that which is sinful, and be granted the righteousness of Jesus. Jesus was our representative, and there is no other way to the Father accept through Him.
Romans 8:20-21
New King James Version (NKJV)
20 For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it in hope; 21 because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God.
- Davies
I'm still waiting for your explanation of Romans 8:20. How does the passage relate to the doctrine?Good post.
Little ones are 'vessels of dishonor' simply because they too are first flesh and all flesh is "corruptible flesh."
- 1 Corinthians 15:50 "Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption."
Every man who has ever lived, regardless as to how young or how old, and not just every man but even every spirit:
- Philippians 2:10 "That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth."
- Colossians 1:20 "And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven."
David and you and I all have a symbolic "book" with all of our preordained days written in His book, before the world began:
- Psalms 139:16 "Thine eyes did see mine unformed substance; And in thy book they were all written, Even the days that were ordained for me, When as yet there was none of them."
- 2 Timothy 1:9 "Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began."
You're all over the place ETB, and I don't even know where you are coming from half of the time. Let's back up.
If you don't mind, go through these 6 verses one by one, and explain exactly what they mean to you. Be thorough, and Scriptural.
- Romans 8:20 "For the creature was made subject to vanity, NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope."
- Jeremiah 18:4 "And the vessel that he made of clay was MARRED IN THE HAND OF THE POTTER: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make it."
- Psalms 51:5 "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and IN SIN did my mother conceive me."
- Romans 7:18 "For I know that in me (that is, IN MY FLESH,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not."
- 1 Corinthians 15:50 "Now this I say, brethren, that FLESH AND BLOOD cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption."
- Romans 8:8 "So then they that are in THE FLESH cannot please God."
Hello, Davies.
I'm new around here. You've posted something here I had never seen before yesterday when I read it in another person's post. That is the use of Rmns 8:20-21 as part of the argument favoring the doctrine of an inherited sin nature.
Now, I've been around this planet for a long time, and have been an amateur theologian of sorts for nearly 30 years. I've done a lot of reading, but had never come across this particular argument before.
I'd love it if you could explain to me why you think Romans 8:20-21 adds to the argument in favor of the doctrine.
Thanks.
ps If you could cite some expert sources as well, I'd greatly appreciate it.
I appreciate it. Take your time.Hi OldJesushippie,
I'm off to work at the moment, but give me some time, I'll try to give you what you want.
- Davies
While I'm waiting for your response regarding Romans 8:20, I'd like to talk about Jeremiah 18:4. This verse has no relationship to the doctrine of an inherited sin nature. In Chapter 18 of Jeremiah, God is addressing His relationship with Judah. God had a plan for Judah, but because of their rebellin, He had to start over with a different plan. (That's the context of Jeremiah 18:4). Judah was the lump of clay. The clay went bad, so God had to rework the clay into something else.If you don't mind, go through these 6 verses one by one, and explain exactly what each one mean to you. Be thorough, and Scriptural.
- Romans 8:20 "For the creature was made subject to vanity, NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope."
- Jeremiah 18:4 "And the vessel that he made of clay was MARRED IN THE HAND OF THE POTTER: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make it."
I'm still waiting for your explanation of Romans 8:20. How does the passage relate to the doctrine?
I'm sorry. I'm not able to follow your line of thought on this. It seems, to me, that you're grabbing several unrelated verses and attempting to tie them together.I have already addressed that in post #263. Here it is again in case you missed it:
You and I are "the creature". It was our Creator who "made [Adam and us] subject to vanity". Was that the result of Adam's fabled 'free will"? Absolutely not. God knew before He ever created Adam that he (and we) would need a Savior. So we are told, "NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of Him who subjected the same in hope".
- Romans 8:20 "For the creature was made subject to vanity, NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope."
God created Adam "marred in the Potter's hand", and had already made provision for Adam's sins by the sacrifice of His own Son. And this was all done and ordained by God "before the world began".
- 2 Timothy 1:9 "Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began."
[*]Titus 1:2 "In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began."
The "relation" to the doctrine is to be found in understanding of the Truth of 1 John 2:16.
Eve, and Adam with her, committed all these sins before she ever touched the tree.
- 1 John 2:16 "For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world."
Before Eve ever touched the tree her "made-subject-to-vanity" nature was already working in her to show her the fact that her Creator had formed her naked and of the corruptible dust. Being made "very good" had no goodness at all by reason of that which excels; "the new man."
- Genesis 3:6 "And when the woman SAW that the tree was good for food [The lust of the flesh], and that it was pleasant to the eyes [lust of the eyes], and a tree to be desired to make one wise [The pride of life], she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat."
Eve committed "all sin that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life" before she ever touched the tree of the knowledge of good and evil because she was a "vessel of clay... marred in the Potter's hand" and because she was "made...of the dust of the earth" and because she was "shapen in iniquity" and because she was "made subject to vanity, not [because of any supposed self] willingly but by reason of Him who subjected the same in hope."
- 2 Corinthains 3:10 "For even that which was made glorious [The first "marred " Adam] had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth [The second Adam]."
Since I have answered your question now twice ....... how about you, as you say, "examine exegetically" the passages you believe were NOT examined exegetically - starting with the six I gave ETB (Ernest) that you quoted above.
I'm sorry. I'm not able to follow your line of thought on this. It seems, to me, that you're grabbing several unrelated verses and attempting to tie them together.
My question regarding Romans 8:20, specifically, was why you think the verse is relevant to the doctrine of an inherited sin nature. The reason I ask is that I am unaware of anyone throughout Church history making that claim. Obviousy I haven't read everything that has been written on the topic. Moreover, I've forgotten most of what I've ever read. So if you don't mind, I'd like to know the source of your claim.
Originally posted by OldJesushippie,
I can't see any connection because the topic of Romans 8 is NOT "man's innate inclination to sin - his natural propensity to sin." Nor is that the topic of Jeremiah 18:4. You've taken these verses away from their contexts and have twisted them to fit into a man-made doctrine. You have not demonstated how these verses are contextually tied to the topic.
You can say multiple times God created man corrupt contrary to Eccl 7:29 but there is no verse for you to back that up.
Culpable is only a matter of perspective if God Himself provided the CURE in Jesus Christ.If God created man corrupt then that puts blame and culpabilty on God for man's sins and man has no accountability for his own sins.
It is not surprising that you can not seem to come to simple grips with some basic observations and instead defend a 'doctrine' that has obviously ZERO ability to grasp the matters put to you.The man with one talent tried to blame his actions on God by calling God a "hard man" Matt 25:24 According to some here the one talent man could only do as God created him to do so he would have been JUSTIFIED in blaming God for his actions for God caused him against his own will to bury his one talent. But then we have God punishing this man by casting him into outer darkness for doing what God caused him to do. God does not cause men to sin just so God can have the pleasure of punishing him, Eze 33:11
When you get around to meeting on some factual ground maybe it'll come to you? I am not fond of discussing with blind programming courtesy of trying to uphold doctrines that can not observe and engage with simple facts as delineated prior and herein.Yet the man of his own will chose to bury his one talent and God had no culpability in it so the idea of OS and totally depravity should be rejected for putting blame and culpability of mans' sins upon God.
Originally posted by Ernest T. Bass,
Again where in Jer 18 does it say the Potter made/forced the clay to mar just so it can be made into a vessel of dishonor?
Hello, Davies.
I'm new around here. You've posted something here I had never seen before yesterday when I read it in another person's post. That is the use of Rmns 8:20-21 as part of the argument favoring the doctrine of an inherited sin nature.
Now, I've been around this planet for a long time, and have been an amateur theologian of sorts for nearly 30 years. I've done a lot of reading, but had never come across this particular argument before.
I'd love it if you could explain to me why you think Romans 8:20-21 adds to the argument in favor of the doctrine.
Thanks.
ps If you could cite some expert sources as well, I'd greatly appreciate it.