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Are we born with a sin nature?

Psa 58:3 says "...they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies."

This means they would be able to speak and understand a language and even understand what it means to lie at the moment they are born which is not possible at all.

This means? Maybe only to you so you can satisfy your particular doctrinal slant.

The scripture does not need any tampering to say and mean what it says and means as it says and means of itself.
Bad, bad, bad argument.

Please tell me what language do new borns speak?

The language of selfishness and fleshly needs. What makes you think that a child's utterances are not their expressions of language?

lol


Psa 58:6 "Break their teeth, O God, in their mouth: break out the great teeth of the young lions, O LORD. "

New born have teeth that are to be broken out? But wait, the Psalmist is not talking about humans but lions !

That's quite funny. Lions are the 'wicked?' You mean, like BABY lions? heh heh heh

You are quite entertaining. Quite.

Your attempt at a literal interpretation = fail.

If your slant is baby lions I'd dare say you didn't seem to do much better. What language do baby lions speak? heh heh heh

Why would the tree not be a literal tree in a literal garden?

The tree of life has to connect to God or a literalist 'only' reader falls headlong into poly theism, as in God AND a physical tree giving ETERNAL LIFE.

Not too hard to figure out. Unless one is a polytheist of course. Which a strict literalist is in that sense.

Man brought the corruption upon himself.

Paul said that God planted Adam in a body of weakness, corruption, dishonor and a natural (flesh/dust) body.

There are no amount of 'choices' that will or can be made to change those facts by any man.

A blinded man can certainly choose to overlook the obvious, but I would only term that a delusion.

s
 
From my post #92, in examining this passage it should be understood the language is highly figurative and not to be taken literally.


Psalms 58:
1 (To the chief Musician, Altaschith, Michtam of David.) Do ye indeed speak righteousness, O congregation? do ye judge uprightly, O ye sons of men?

2 Yea, in heart ye work wickedness; ye weigh the violence of your hands in the earth.

3 The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies.

I see these verses to be very literal as David is judging their wicked hearts as they were wicked from the time they were born IE: estranged from the womb after they were born.
 
Jesus gave Himself for man's sins Gal 1:4 but Jesus did not create anyone to be a sinner or cause man to sin against his will.

Good morning Ernest T. Bass,

I'd be interested in why you think the virgin birth of Jesus was necessary. If man doesn't receive the sinful nature through birth, then I would think Jesus could have been born of Joseph and still lived a life of perfection and never have had to worry about a gray hair.

- Davies
 
I see these verses to be very literal as David is judging their wicked hearts as they were wicked from the time they were born IE: estranged from the womb after they were born.

God certainly didn't spare prediluvian or antidiluvian babies for their cleanness of heart or their lack of 'accountable choices.'
 
Hi BornAgain,

I would disagree with you that we are not born with a sinful nature. The Law of God reveals otherwise. We break the Law because it is in our nature to do so. Our problem is that we are found in Adam. If you disagree that we are born with this nature, then you could say Jesus didn't die for babies that don't make it to the age of accountability, whatever age that may be. I think everyone needs the atoning blood of Jesus applied to their account. Don't you?

- Davies

----Rom 2:14 "For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: "

How could the Gentiles "by nature" do God's law (do right) if they had a sinful nature?


----If sinning was something man was born to naturally do, how can homosexuality be "agaisnt nature", Rom 1:26-27 ?

----Christ took on a human nature, Heb 2:17 but did not sin so human nature in and of itself is not sinful.


----Psa 51:1-4 "[[To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David, when Nathan the prophet came unto him, after he had gone in to Bathsheba.]] Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions. Wash me throughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin. For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin [is] ever before me. Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done [this] evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, [and] be clear when thou judgest."

David just acknowledged and was very repentant over his own sins and not some sin he supposedly inherited.

----David also wrote "But thou [art] he that took me out of the womb: thou didst make me hope [when I was] upon my mother's breasts. I was cast upon thee from the womb: thou [art] my God from my mother's belly. ", Psa 22:9-10 Compare this with Psa 51:5 was David a vile, little sinful devil at birth or did he belong to God at birth?


Col 3:25 "But he that doeth wrong shall receive for the wrong which he hath done: and there is no respect of persons. " Each person will be judged and punished according their own sins they committed and not someone elses' sins.
 
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Good morning Ernest T. Bass,

I'd be interested in why you think the virgin birth of Jesus was necessary. If man doesn't receive the sinful nature through birth, then I would think Jesus could have been born of Joseph and still lived a life of perfection and never have had to worry about a gray hair.

- Davies

Then you are denying scripture and questioning it.

Matthew 1:18 (KJV)
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

Matthew says that she was "found with child of the Holy Spirit." Her friends and relatives did not know that she was with child by the Holy Spirit; probably they would not have believed her had she told them it was the Holy Spirit; it was a delicate situation for her, and the records are silent as to what Mary had to say about her condition, if she said anything.

Luke is more to the point. He says that the angel Gabriel said to Mary, "Thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus.... The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee: wherefore also the holy thing which is begotten shall be called the Son of God." (Luke 1:31-35.)

The Holy Spirit is that which produced the human existence of Christ, through whose action, which so appeared only in this, the only case of its kind, the origin of the embryo in the womb of Mary was casually produced in opposition to human generation, so that the latter is thereby excluded; Jesus was truly "the seed of the woman."

"Jesus was as human as his mother Mary, and as divine as his father God." This record testifies that Mary was a virgin; even after she is found to be with child, she is still a virgin. (Verse 23.)
 
Good morning Ernest T. Bass,

I'd be interested in why you think the virgin birth of Jesus was necessary. If man doesn't receive the sinful nature through birth, then I would think Jesus could have been born of Joseph and still lived a life of perfection and never have had to worry about a gray hair.

- Davies

Psa 51:5 is used as "proof text" to prove man is born a sinner and this verse only mentions the mother. Jesus would have inherited sin from His mother as David supposedly did.

Also from Heb 2:17 we are told "Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto [his] brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things [pertaining] to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people."

IF Jesus' brethren were born sinners, born totally depraved, born with a sinful nature Jesus was made just like them.
 
Psalms 58:
1 (To the chief Musician, Altaschith, Michtam of David.) Do ye indeed speak righteousness, O congregation? do ye judge uprightly, O ye sons of men?

2 Yea, in heart ye work wickedness; ye weigh the violence of your hands in the earth.

3 The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies.

I see these verses to be very literal as David is judging their wicked hearts as they were wicked from the time they were born IE: estranged from the womb after they were born.

From post #92, here are the problems with a literal interpretation:

A contradiction

If the language of Psalm 51:5 and 58:3-6 is to be pressed literally, then one encounters a contradiction between the two texts. Psalm 51:5 would teach that the child is a sinner from the moment of his conception, whereas Psalm 58:3 would suggest that the infant does not “go astray” until he is born — nine months later. Which is it – if the text is strictly literal?


Going astray

The fact that the sinner is said to “go astray” (Psa. 58:3), rather than being “born astray,” reveals the individual’s personal culpability, rather than Adam’s responsibility (as in the “original sin” theory). Compare Isaiah’s declaration: “All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way” (Isa. 53:6). No one is considered “sinful” on account of the sins of someone else (Ezek. 18:20).


An impossibility

A literal interpretation of Psalm 58:3 involves an impossibility. It has the infant “speaking” lies as soon as it is born, which every parent knows is not the reality. It is the case, however, that we often figuratively (using hyperbole) refer to the language that one has spoken most of his life as the tongue of his “birth” (cf. Acts 2:8).

Similarly, the fact that these “estranged” people are said to have “teeth” at the point of birth (v. 6) is further evidence that the sacred writer is not speaking of a literal, newborn child. Can anyone cite a case of where a day-old child has told a lie?


Kill the baby?

If the text of Psalm 58:3ff is to be pressed literally, these little ones who are “speaking lies” must have their teeth broken (v. 6). And since they are compared to poisonous snakes, the implication is that they should be killed so that their venom will not be deadly to others. Can the reader not see the gross error in pressing this language into a literal mold?


Lions or people?

If the language of Psalm 58:3-6 is literal, one must conclude that the divine writer was not dealing with human beings at all, but with “lions” — and, in fact, lions that spoke lies (v. 6). What is this: an example of figurative language, or some kind of Walt Disney production?

One of the cardinal rules of Bible interpretation is that one must never force a scriptural statement into a situation wherein an absurdity is affirmed. Such certainly would be the case, however, if the “original sin” interpretation of this passage is maintained.

The meaning of the text, then, is simply this. When the panorama of one’s life is viewed as a whole, relatively early in life each rational person begins to move away from God into a sinful state of spiritual rebellion. He utters things contrary to the will of God – his speech being a commentary on the disposition of his heart (cf. Mk. 7:21). He does not listen and respond to the voice of the Lord. Such conduct, therefore, if pursed continuously, is worthy of punishment.
 
To get back to the OP....we are not born with a sinful nature.

We all have a sin nature as we have all been conceived and born into a sinful world by that of Satan's deceit.

What part of the underlined here says we were born with a sin nature? I said we have a sin nature after birth as being prone to sin because of Satan sin was cast down to deceive the nations.
 
We all have a sin nature as we have all been conceived and born into a sinful world by that of Satan's deceit.

What part of the underlined here says we were born with a sin nature? I said we have a sin nature after birth as being prone to sin because of Satan sin was cast down to deceive the nations.

So, you are telling me that a baby is born with a sinful nature?
 
We all have a sin nature as we have all been conceived and born into a sinful world by that of Satan's deceit.

What part of the underlined here says we were born with a sin nature? I said we have a sin nature after birth as being prone to sin because of Satan sin was cast down to deceive the nations.

The part I have trouble with is your first underlined statement. Conceived and born into a sinful world....so when you were conceived, were you conceived through sin or by a mother and father through love that wanted a child? Is that sinful?

Yes, we are born into a sinful world, but we do not inherit our mother and father's sins. You have children...were they conceived through sin or by love?

When they were babies and you first looked at them did you see the they had a sinful nature or did you look at them as innocent babies that you loved unconditionally. Did you look at your babies and think, oh my...they have a sinful nature?
 
We all have a sin nature as we have all been conceived and born into a sinful world by that of Satan's deceit.

What part of the underlined here says we were born with a sin nature? I said we have a sin nature after birth as being prone to sin because of Satan sin was cast down to deceive the nations.

Eph 2:2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

The one who broadcasts moods and attitudes that are contrary to God. We are born neutral, but Satan's bombardments soon take hold. Notice that in the future, at the end of the Millenium, when Satan is released, how quickly he subverts people.

Rev 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,
Rev 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
Rev 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.

And this occurs after 1000 years of Jesus Christ's rule on the earth.
 
Then you are denying scripture and questioning it.

You definitely misunderstood what I said. What I said was, "If man doesn't receive the sinful nature through birth," then Jesus could have been born of Joseph. As it was, Jesus didn't have an earthly father as you pointed out so He did not inherit the sinful nature.

According to Romans 5:12-19, it says that death spread to all men through the one man, Adam. A man could have lived a perfect life and not sin in the likeness of Adam, but he still would have died. Adam merited for you condemnation.

12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned

All sinned in Adam.

13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

I think I've said that sin was imputed, but I think we should be careful here to say the sin nature was passed down. It's a foregone conclusion that every man would sin after Adam and Eve. You don't hear about Abel's sin, yet he sacrificed an animal to God.

15 ... For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many.

16 ... For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification.

Adam merited for you condemnation. Jesus merits for you eternal life.

17 For if by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)

18 Therefore, as through one man’s offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation...

19 For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners...

This reads very plainly to me and the repetition by Paul is really an exclamation point. Our nature, status, condition is all because of the one man, Adam. Someone will say, 'That's not fair.' Right, but neither is having our sins paid for by Jesus.

- Davies
 
This means? Maybe only to you so you can satisfy your particular doctrinal slant.

The scripture does not need any tampering to say and mean what it says and means as it says and means of itself.


The language of selfishness and fleshly needs. What makes you think that a child's utterances are not their expressions of language?

lol



That's quite funny. Lions are the 'wicked?' You mean, like BABY lions? heh heh heh

You are quite entertaining. Quite.



If your slant is baby lions I'd dare say you didn't seem to do much better. What language do baby lions speak? heh heh heh



The tree of life has to connect to God or a literalist 'only' reader falls headlong into poly theism, as in God AND a physical tree giving ETERNAL LIFE.

Not too hard to figure out. Unless one is a polytheist of course. Which a strict literalist is in that sense.



Paul said that God planted Adam in a body of weakness, corruption, dishonor and a natural (flesh/dust) body.

There are no amount of 'choices' that will or can be made to change those facts by any man.

A blinded man can certainly choose to overlook the obvious, but I would only term that a delusion.

s

New borns are not capable of speaking any language much less lie. You have no valid argument here. Lk 13:32 was Herod really a four-legged furry mammal with a bushy tail?
 
From post #92, here are the problems with a literal interpretation:

A contradiction

If the language of Psalm 51:5 and 58:3-6 is to be pressed literally, then one encounters a contradiction between the two texts. Psalm 51:5 would teach that the child is a sinner from the moment of his conception, whereas Psalm 58:3 would suggest that the infant does not “go astray” until he is born — nine months later. Which is it – if the text is strictly literal?


Going astray

The fact that the sinner is said to “go astray” (Psa. 58:3), rather than being “born astray,” reveals the individual’s personal culpability, rather than Adam’s responsibility (as in the “original sin” theory). Compare Isaiah’s declaration: “All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way” (Isa. 53:6). No one is considered “sinful” on account of the sins of someone else (Ezek. 18:20).


An impossibility

A literal interpretation of Psalm 58:3 involves an impossibility. It has the infant “speaking” lies as soon as it is born, which every parent knows is not the reality. It is the case, however, that we often figuratively (using hyperbole) refer to the language that one has spoken most of his life as the tongue of his “birth” (cf. Acts 2:8).

Similarly, the fact that these “estranged” people are said to have “teeth” at the point of birth (v. 6) is further evidence that the sacred writer is not speaking of a literal, newborn child. Can anyone cite a case of where a day-old child has told a lie?


Kill the baby?

If the text of Psalm 58:3ff is to be pressed literally, these little ones who are “speaking lies” must have their teeth broken (v. 6). And since they are compared to poisonous snakes, the implication is that they should be killed so that their venom will not be deadly to others. Can the reader not see the gross error in pressing this language into a literal mold?


Lions or people?

If the language of Psalm 58:3-6 is literal, one must conclude that the divine writer was not dealing with human beings at all, but with “lions” — and, in fact, lions that spoke lies (v. 6). What is this: an example of figurative language, or some kind of Walt Disney production?

One of the cardinal rules of Bible interpretation is that one must never force a scriptural statement into a situation wherein an absurdity is affirmed. Such certainly would be the case, however, if the “original sin” interpretation of this passage is maintained.

The meaning of the text, then, is simply this. When the panorama of one’s life is viewed as a whole, relatively early in life each rational person begins to move away from God into a sinful state of spiritual rebellion. He utters things contrary to the will of God – his speech being a commentary on the disposition of his heart (cf. Mk. 7:21). He does not listen and respond to the voice of the Lord. Such conduct, therefore, if pursed continuously, is worthy of punishment.

Estrange means to disassociate or remove oneself. The first time we sin, which can only occur after birth as being only estranged from the womb, we allow our self to be separated from God the first time we sin even though we might not have knowledge of good or evil yet, but only God knows the intents of the heart no matter what the age as age plays no factor as we can see with the children of Sodom and Gomorrah for example as even at such young ages they too were taken in death right along with the adults for their sin that separated them from God, Hosea 4:6,7 and also in the flood that only Noah and his family were saved as all else from babies to adults were killed in the flood. In Psalms 58 the first three verses are literal as the rest are metaphorically to make it's point.
 
You definitely misunderstood what I said. What I said was, "If man doesn't receive the sinful nature through birth," then Jesus could have been born of Joseph. As it was, Jesus didn't have an earthly father as you pointed out so He did not inherit the sinful nature.

According to Romans 5:12-19, it says that death spread to all men through the one man, Adam. A man could have lived a perfect life and not sin in the likeness of Adam, but he still would have died. Adam merited for you condemnation.

12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned

All sinned in Adam.

13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

I think I've said that sin was imputed, but I think we should be careful here to say the sin nature was passed down. It's a foregone conclusion that every man would sin after Adam and Eve. You don't hear about Abel's sin, yet he sacrificed an animal to God.

15 ... For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many.

16 ... For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification.

Adam merited for you condemnation. Jesus merits for you eternal life.

17 For if by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)

18 Therefore, as through one man’s offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation...

19 For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners...

This reads very plainly to me and the repetition by Paul is really an exclamation point. Our nature, status, condition is all because of the one man, Adam. Someone will say, 'That's not fair.' Right, but neither is having our sins paid for by Jesus.

- Davies

Hi,

I did not misunderstand, but the reason below is why Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit: Jesus was born to set an example for us to follow, He was the only man to walk this earth that never committed a sin. That does not mean we are born with sin. How else would "Our Savior" enter this sinful world? Would or could God create His only living Son to be born in such a miraculous way so we could understand His power?

thou shalt conceive in thy womb,—This announcement to Mary carried with it an astonishment. She did not understand how all of this would come to pass to her, a lowly maiden of Nazareth.

The promise was that she should "bring forth a son," and the instruction was that she should "call his name JESUS." (Obedience)

"Jesus" means "Saviour"; this was because He should "save His people from their sins." The angel continued to emphasize the character of this Son; "He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Most High."

This does not refer to temporal greatness, but to the glory and power to which he was to be exalted. He should be universally acknowledged as the "Son of the Most High."

This is a special and definite name as Jesus, Christ, Messiah, and Lord are given to him. "The Son of the Most High" was evidently a Messianic title, like "Son of the Blessed." Mark 14:61. The promise was made that he should be given "the throne of his father David." This promise of authority and dominion was made primarily and in the lowest sense to Solomon 2 Sam 7:12-13, who was the type of Christ. It was prophetically made to the Messiah, who, according to the flesh, was to spring from David Rom 1:3.

It should be remembered that Mary, though not actually married, had no difficulty in understanding this angelic message arising from family descent. (We seem to though).

This shows that she was herself, as many claim, a descendant of David, and fully aware of this distinguished honor, a fact which throws much light on the genealogy of our Lord as given a little later by Luke. Luke 3:23-38.

he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever;—This verse and the word "throne" in verse 32 are to be understood as representing a spiritual dominion. "The house of Jacob" means the Israelitish nation, which, in the Messianic times, was to embrace all who were partakers of the faith of Abraham, whether they were Jews or Gentiles. Gal 3:7.
 
Hi,

I did not misunderstand, but the reason below is why Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit: Jesus was born to set an example for us to follow, He was the only man to walk this earth that never committed a sin. That does not mean we are born with sin. How else would "Our Savior" enter this sinful world? Would or could God create His only living Son to be born in such a miraculous way so we could understand His power?

thou shalt conceive in thy womb,—This announcement to Mary carried with it an astonishment. She did not understand how all of this would come to pass to her, a lowly maiden of Nazareth.

The promise was that she should "bring forth a son," and the instruction was that she should "call his name JESUS." (Obedience)

"Jesus" means "Saviour"; this was because He should "save His people from their sins." The angel continued to emphasize the character of this Son; "He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Most High."

This does not refer to temporal greatness, but to the glory and power to which he was to be exalted. He should be universally acknowledged as the "Son of the Most High."

This is a special and definite name as Jesus, Christ, Messiah, and Lord are given to him. "The Son of the Most High" was evidently a Messianic title, like "Son of the Blessed." Mark 14:61. The promise was made that he should be given "the throne of his father David." This promise of authority and dominion was made primarily and in the lowest sense to Solomon 2 Sam 7:12-13, who was the type of Christ. It was prophetically made to the Messiah, who, according to the flesh, was to spring from David Rom 1:3.

It should be remembered that Mary, though not actually married, had no difficulty in understanding this angelic message arising from family descent. (We seem to though).

This shows that she was herself, as many claim, a descendant of David, and fully aware of this distinguished honor, a fact which throws much light on the genealogy of our Lord as given a little later by Luke. Luke 3:23-38.

he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever;—This verse and the word "throne" in verse 32 are to be understood as representing a spiritual dominion. "The house of Jacob" means the Israelitish nation, which, in the Messianic times, was to embrace all who were partakers of the faith of Abraham, whether they were Jews or Gentiles. Gal 3:7.

Hi BornAgain,

This still doesn't address Romans 12-19.

Romans 5:19

New King James Version (NKJV)

19 For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners,

- Davies
 
Estrange means to disassociate or remove oneself. The first time we sin, which can only occur after birth as being only estranged from the womb,

You say "The first time we sin, which can only occur after birth" ..yet Psa 51:5 supposedly says one is a sinner at conception not at birth. This is one of the problems in taking both passages literally.

for his glory said:
we allow our self to be separated from God the first time we sin even though we might not have knowledge of good or evil yet, but only God knows the intents of the heart no matter what the age as age plays no factor as we can see with the children of Sodom and Gomorrah for example as even at such young ages they too were taken in death right along with the adults for their sin that separated them from God, Hosea 4:6,7 and also in the flood that only Noah and his family were saved as all else from babies to adults were killed in the flood. In Psalms 58 the first three verses are literal as the rest are metaphorically to make it's point.

Rom 9:11 "(For [the children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil," ......so the unborn have done no good or evil so man is born innocent or neutral. Man is not a sinner till he sins is not righteous till he does righteousness.

You say " In Psalms 58 the first three verses are literal as the rest are metaphorically to make it's point."

The whole passage is speaking about the same thing, so verses 1-6 are all literal or all figurative. The "they" in verse 3 is the same "their" in verses 4 and 6.
Again in verse 3 what language are these new born speaking in order for them to tell lies?
 
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[/QUOTE]

Ernest T. Bass is quite capable of answering but I just wanted to respond to this quote:

Hosea 4:6

But they like men (כאדם‎ keadam, "like Adam") have transgressed the covenant—They have sinned against light and knowledge as he did. This is sense, the other is scarcely so.


There was a striking similarity in the two cases. Adam, in Paradise, transgressed the commandment, and I cast him out: Israel, in possession of the promised land, transgressed my covenant, and I cast them out, and sent them into captivity.

—Adam Clarke's Commentary

Choosing or chose to disobey
 
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