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Defending the faith: A discussion of Catholic Doctrine

Walpole made similar points:
First, Scripture does not state Mary of Nazareth had any children other than Jesus Christ. Again, Christ is referred to as THE son of Mary, not A son of Mary.


When James and Joses are called "brothers" of Jesus, they cannot be uterine brothers because we know from the other Gospels that they are the sons of Mary of Cleophas, not Mary of Nazareth (the Mother of Jesus). St. John tells us that it is Mary of Cleophas at the cross (John 19:25) and St. Matthew tells this Mary of Cleophas is the mother of James and Joses. (Mt. 27:56). Ergo, when Scripture calls some "brothers" or "sisters" of Jesus, they cannot be uterine brothers because Mary of Nazareth is NEVER listed as anyone other than Jesus' mother.


Secondly, the modern Evangelical Protestant error of claiming Mary had subsequent maternities stems from forcing a modern Westernized concept of a family unit (i.e. a nuclear family) onto an ancient Hebrew / Semitic (tribal) culture. The ancient Hebrews did not view family in this manner. Thus to impose and presume a 21st century Western nuclear structure onto Hebrew Semitic / ancient culture is erroneous. Interpreting those passages through the lens of a modern nuclear family like we have is fallacious. The term “brother” in Jewish culture in antiquity had a much broader use in antiquity.


When you see the word "brother" in Scripture, you cannot force a modern Westernized concept of a family unit (i.e. a nuclear family) onto an ancient Hebrew / Semitic (tribal) culture. The ancient Hebrews did not view family in this manner. Thus, you skew the text by applying modern concepts to ancient cultures, thereby incorrectly interpreting those passages by doing so through the lens of a modern nuclear family.


"The units comprising the village mispahah, or kinship group, were the families of early Israel. Because these families were agriculturists, their identity and survival were integrally connected with their material world - more specifically, with their arable land, their implements for working the land and processing its products, and their domiciles - as well as with the human and also animal components of the domestic group. In many ways, the term family household is more useful in dealing with early Israelite families (although that would not be the case for the monarchical period and later, when domestic unites were more varied in their spatial aspects and economic functions). Combining family, with its kingship meanings, and household, a more flexible term including both coresident and economic functions, has descriptive merit. The family household thus included a set of related people as well as residential buildings, outbuildings, tools, equipment, fields, livestock, and orchards; it sometimes also included household members who were not kin, such as "sojourners", war captives and servants." - Families in Ancient Israel: The Family in Early Israel, Carol Meyers, pgs. 13-14


In describing early archaeological excavation of homes in Israel...
"These dwelling clusters constitute evidence for a family unit in early Israel larger than that of the nuclear family (or conjugal couple with unmarried offspring). Each pillared house in a cluster may represent the living space of a nuclear family or parts thereof, but the shared courtyard space and common house walls of the linked buildings indicate a larger family grouping. Early Israelite dwelling unites were thus complex arrangements of several buildings and housed what we might call extended families. Furthermore, thee compound dwelling unites were not isolated buildings within a settlement of single-family homes." - Ibid, pg. 16


"The family was never so 'nuclear' as it is in the modern West." - Families in Ancient Israel: Marriage, Divorce and Family in Second Temple Judaism, John J. Collins, pg. 106
Source
This is what happens when you start a religion using another religion's Scriptures, devoid of their original context, audience, tradition and most importantly, faith.
 
When you say "He" - to whom are you referring.

I said that Mary is the mother of Jesus.
You said "Mary is the mother of the Christ. " as though Jesus is not the Christ. I showed you scripture states the Jesus is the Christ.

You said "Reasoning would state Jesus pre-existed that body that Mary gave birth to."
What reasoning would give you that conclusion?
Scripture says the angel of God said to Mary "you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus." (Lk 1:31)
The angel spoke in the future tense. Therefore Jesus did not pre-exist.
So again you ignore that Jesus stated on earth that He is the living bread that came down from heaven. So do you believe Him?

Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: “Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me;
 
As I pointed out before - and you have ignored - this is a classic taking a verse out of context to make it seem to say something it doesn't say.
When you say "He" - to whom are you referring.

I said that Mary is the mother of Jesus.
You said "Mary is the mother of the Christ. " as though Jesus is not the Christ. I showed you scripture states the Jesus is the Christ.

You said "Reasoning would state Jesus pre-existed that body that Mary gave birth to."
What reasoning would give you that conclusion?
Scripture says the angel of God said to Mary "you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus." (Lk 1:31)
The angel spoke in the future tense. Therefore Jesus did not pre-exist.
The word of life who was with the Father in the beginning. That life appeared and was touched, heard and testified to. Mary can not be the mother of that eternal life who was with the Father in the beginning that descended and ascended to where He was before. That should suggest to you why in the dialogue with Mary Jesus didn't call her Mother.

Then what if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before!

He speaks as if He did exist before Mary.
Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.” 57 So the Jews said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” 58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”
 
The word of life who was with the Father in the beginning. That life appeared and was touched, heard and testified to. Mary can not be the mother of that eternal life who was with the Father in the beginning that descended and ascended to where He was before. That should suggest to you why in the dialogue with Mary Jesus didn't call her Mother.

Then what if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before!

He speaks as if He did exist before Mary.
Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.” 57 So the Jews said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” 58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”
Scripture says the angel of God said to Mary "you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus." (Lk 1:31)
The angel spoke in the future tense. Therefore Jesus did not pre-exist.

Jesus is the name that God gave to his incarnate Son.
The Son of God, the second person of the Trinity always existed. But Jesus - the incarnate Son did not exist until his incarnation.

You quote "Then what if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before!"
But who is the Son of Man?

Jesus asked this of the apostles
Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, “Who do men say that the Son of man is?”(Mt 16:13)
Peter replied “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.”
It was the Son of God, the Second person of the Trinity who is the living bread that came down from heaven.

He took flesh in the womb of the virgin Mary. Jesus was both God and man - 100% God, 100% man.
Mary was his mother.
Therefore Mary is the Mother of God
You can qualify that by saying Mary is the Mother of God in his incarnation if you want to by way of an explanation of how Mary can be the Mother of God.
 
That has zero relevance to the pint I made about your misuse of 1John2:27.
But since you insist on raising a point that has already been answered - her it is again.

According to Dave Armstrong (a Catholic apologist), a Protestant work The Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words defines adelphos as follows:

Adelphos: denotes a brother, or near kinsmen; in the plural, a community based on identity of origin or life. It is used of:
1. male, children of the same parents….
2. male descendant of the same parents, Acts 7:23,26; Hebrews 7:5
4. people of the same nationality, Acts 3:17,22; Romans 9:3
5. any man or neighbor, Luke 10:29; Matthew 5:22, 7:3;
6. persons united by a common interest, Matthew 5:47
7. persons united by a common calling, Revelation 22:9
8. mankind, Matthew 25:40; Hebrews 2:17


Indeed even in today's culture there is a range of possibilities.
That there are different kinds of brothers (and sisters) - full blood brothers, half brothers, adoptive brothers. If a man and woman marry and both have children by a previous marriage they will be regarded as brothers and sisters even though they have no genetic relationship. The actual relationship of these “brothers” (& sisters) to Jesus cannot be established unless a genealogy is given, and it is not.

There is some positive indication in scripture that at least some of these brothers were not Mary's children.

Mark says that at the foot of the cross was “Mary the mother of the younger James and of Joses (Joseph), and Salome” This was obviously not Mary the mother of Jesus, so there is another Mary with sons called James and Joseph.

Matthew similarly says of the women at the foot of the cross “Among them were Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of James and Joseph” (Mt 26:56)

Luke says that at the tomb were “Mary Magdalene, Joanna, and Mary the mother of James” (Lk 24:10)

So there was another Mary whose children were named James, Joses (Joseph) and Salome.
Therefore it is likely that the James, Joseph and Salome described as brothers/sister of Jesus were the sons/daughter of a different Mary.

John writes “Standing by the cross of Jesus were his mother and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary of Magdala.” (Jn 19:25). Now this could mean that Jesus’ mother’s sister was there (whatever is meant by “sister”) and Mary the wife of Clopas or they were the same person, but either way there were at least three Mary’s at the cross – Mary the mother of Jesus, Mary the wife of Clopas and Mary of Magdalene. Now Mary the mother of James and Joseph could have been a fourth or she could have been Mary wife of Clopas. Either way Mary the mother of Jesus was not the mother of James and Joseph mentioned as Jesus’ brothers. And since they were listed first, neither was Simon and Judas, since if the were they would hardly have been listed after non-brothers.

The Church historian Eusebius quoting from Hegesippus (110-180 AD) writes
After the martyrdom of James and the conquest of Jerusalem which immediately followed, it is said that those of the apostles and disciples of the Lord that were still living came together from all directions with those that were related to the Lord according to the flesh (for the majority of them also were still alive) to take counsel as to who was worthy to succeed James. They all with one consent pronounced Symeon, the son of Clopas, of whom the Gospel also makes mention; to be worthy of the episcopal throne of that parish. He was a cousin, as they say, of the Saviour. For Hegesippus records that Clopas was a brother of Joseph.

So Symeon (Simeon, Simon) was the cousin of Jesus, and Mary Clopas was therefore the sister-in-law of Mary the mother of Jesus. Again note the loose use of relationships. Mary Clopas is referred to as Mary’s “sister” in Jn 19:25 when she is actually her sister-in-law.

In the book of Jude he says “Jude, a slave of Jesus Christ and brother of James” (Jude 1:1) So Jude (or Judas) is probably the brother of James the son of Clopas.

Then also Luke when listing the apostles says James, son of Alpheus. But the Aramaic Alpheus can be rendered in Greek as either Alpheus or Clopas. So again James, the “brother” of the Lord is probably the son of Clopas.

Contd.

More Catholic commentary.
 
That has zero relevance to the pint I made about your misuse of 1John2:27.

But the anointing which you have received from Him abides in you, and you do not need that anyone teach you; but as the same anointing teaches you concerning all things, and is true, and is not a lie, and just as it has taught you, you will abide in Him. 1 John 2:27


The anointing I have received from Him teaches me.
 
Scripture says the angel of God said to Mary "you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus." (Lk 1:31)
The angel spoke in the future tense. Therefore Jesus did not pre-exist.

Jesus is the name that God gave to his incarnate Son.
The Son of God, the second person of the Trinity always existed. But Jesus - the incarnate Son did not exist until his incarnation.

You quote "Then what if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before!"
But who is the Son of Man?

Jesus asked this of the apostles
Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, “Who do men say that the Son of man is?”(Mt 16:13)
Peter replied “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.”
It was the Son of God, the Second person of the Trinity who is the living bread that came down from heaven.

He took flesh in the womb of the virgin Mary. Jesus was both God and man - 100% God, 100% man.
Mary was his mother.
Therefore Mary is the Mother of God
You can qualify that by saying Mary is the Mother of God in his incarnation if you want to by way of an explanation of how Mary can be the Mother of God.
I gave you testimony from the Son of God who came down from heaven, ascended back to where "He" was before and stated before Abraham was born, "I Am". Mary can not be His mother.

The problem is with your understanding not Jesus's testimony. I follow Him.

Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

Its clear to me the Son who was, (His spirit), was in the "body" prepared for Him.

"Father into your hands I commit My spirit"
 
@Walpole made similar points:
First, Scripture does not state Mary of Nazareth had any children other than Jesus Christ. Again, Christ is referred to as THE son of Mary, not A son of Mary

Please refer to the scripture that says Mary of Nazareth didnt have other children besides Jesus.


Here the scripture makes specific mention of Jesus by identifying "the carpenters son" a reference to Joseph, as well as "Mary".

So with have Jesus, the carpenters son, Joseph, and Mary identified.

So we have the family unit of Jesus, Mary and Joseph framed and identified by scripture.

Next the scripture introduces His brothers, plainly indentified as the "carpenters son" brothers and His sisters.

These brothers and sisters are contextually associted with the carpenters son, Joseph, Mary and Jesus.


Is this not the carpenter’s son? Is not His mother called Mary? And His brothers James, Joses, Simon, and Judas? And His sisters, are they not all with us? Where then did this Man get all these things?”
Matthew 13:55-56




JLB
 
More Catholic commentary.
No just Catholic Commentary.

My posts were full of scripture which you are just ignoring.
Nowhere does scripture say that Mary had other children apart from Jesus.

According to Dave Armstrong (a Catholic apologist), a Protestant work The Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words defines adelphos as follows:

Adelphos: denotes a brother, or near kinsmen; in the plural, a community based on identity of origin or life. It is used of:
1. male, children of the same parents….
2. male descendant of the same parents, Acts 7:23,26; Hebrews 7:5
4. people of the same nationality, Acts 3:17,22; Romans 9:3
5. any man or neighbor, Luke 10:29; Matthew 5:22, 7:3;
6. persons united by a common interest, Matthew 5:47
7. persons united by a common calling, Revelation 22:9
8. mankind, Matthew 25:40; Hebrews 2:17
This is from a Protestant work not a Catholic commentary.

Moreover I showed that some of these brothers and sisters were not children of Mary the mother of Jesus.

An important argument from a theological perspective is that always, when a birth is announced by an angel of a son, it is a matter of an only son.
  • Isaac (Gen 18:10)
  • Samson (Judges 13:4)
  • John the Baptist (Lk 1:13)
If these were figures of the Messiah, it would be illogical that they would be only sons, and the one represented by them were not like them.

when Luke tells us about the family in Nazareth, he only mentions three persons, not more. (Lk 2:41-52) When Jesus was lost in the temple, Joseph and Mary did not return with other sons. If one were lost, surely they would not leave the others (if there were any) at risk of losing them as well.

There is no mention of any other children being born to Mary.

You are hanging onto a false assumption that "brothers" and "sisters" must be uterine brother and sisters of Jesus. This is not true in our culture and it was not true in the culture of Jesus' time.
 
I gave you testimony from the Son of God who came down from heaven, ascended back to where "He" was before and stated before Abraham was born, "I Am". Mary can not be His mother.

The problem is with your understanding not Jesus's testimony. I follow Him.

Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

Its clear to me the Son who was, (His spirit), was in the "body" prepared for Him.

"Father into your hands I commit My spirit"

Yes, the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity came down from heaven and ascended back again.

That Son of God, the second person of the Trinity, was conceived as a human in the womb of Mary - 100% God, 100% man.
The mother of that person was Mary.

BTW it's polite and proper to give biblical references to any quotes you make from scripture.
 
Walpole made similar points:
First, Scripture does not state Mary of Nazareth had any children other than Jesus Christ. Again, Christ is referred to as THE son of Mary, not A son of Mary.


When James and Joses are called "brothers" of Jesus, they cannot be uterine brothers because we know from the other Gospels that they are the sons of Mary of Cleophas, not Mary of Nazareth (the Mother of Jesus). St. John tells us that it is Mary of Cleophas at the cross (John 19:25) and St. Matthew tells this Mary of Cleophas is the mother of James and Joses. (Mt. 27:56). Ergo, when Scripture calls some "brothers" or "sisters" of Jesus, they cannot be uterine brothers because Mary of Nazareth is NEVER listed as anyone other than Jesus' mother.
Actually the verse you quoted does have three Mary's identified. You have misinterpreted the verse.

There is the Mary you mentioned... plus the mother of Jesus and Mary Magdaline. I would encourage you to read the verse before posting.
 
But the anointing which you have received from Him abides in you, and you do not need that anyone teach you; but as the same anointing teaches you concerning all things, and is true, and is not a lie, and just as it has taught you, you will abide in Him. 1 John 2:27


The anointing I have received from Him teaches me.
This is false exegesis. It ignores the context.

The Biblical way to hear the Good News was to hear it being preached not be reading a book and working it out oneself.

“But how can they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how can they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And how can they hear without someone to preach?” (Rom 10:14).
All though Acts and Paul’s letters we hear about the word being preached.

This was not just for the apostolic age. Jesus says about the end times:
And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached throughout the whole world, as a testimony to all nations; and then the end will come. (Mt 24:14)

John, who wrote the text we are considering, records two promises that Jesus made to the apostles at the Last Supper. This was his final talk to them before his death and resurrection. He had been teaching them for 3 years and was soon to send them out on mission to take the gospel into the world where they would be facing new situations and new challenges.

He makes them two promises.

Firstly about the past – all he has taught them.
But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you. (Jn 14:26).

Secondly about the future – to guide them in new situations
When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth; for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. (Jn 16:13)

And we can see how this guiding happened in Acts 1 (the choosing of Matthias as a successor to Judas), and in Acts 15 (the Council of Jerusalem)

Now we move to John’s letter, chapter 2. He is writing to Christians who he personally has catechised, taught them everything, taught them the truth. He addresses them as “my children” (vs 1) and “beloved” (vs 7). However they are in danger of being led astray by false teachers. That is the context. And we need to start at vs 20 not 24 to get the immediate context

20. But you have been anointed by the Holy One, and you all know.
Footnotes say some manuscripts say “you know everything” instead of you all know.
They know because John has taught them.

21 I write to you, not because you do not know the truth, but because you know it… [because John has taught them].

24 Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you[what they have already been taught]. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you will abide in the Son and in the Father.

Now vs 26 & 27 in this context:
26 I write this to you about those who would deceive you [John is concerned that they are being taught falsely].

27 but the anointing which you received from him abides in you, and you have no need that any one should teach you [because they have already been taught by John]; as his anointing teaches you about everything [that they have been taught], and is true, and is no lie, just as it has taught you, abide in him.

This is equivalent to the first promise Jesus made to the apostles. The Holy Spirit would bring to mind all the true teaching they had already received. That presupposes that they had already received true teaching. But you have to get that true teaching first. You cannot generate it from your own resources. You cannot reach the truth by starting from scratch, but only by receiving it from those who have already been taught it and can pass it on. Then when you are presented with false teaching, the Holy Spirit will bring to mind the truth that you have already been taught.

This where Martin Luther and the other reformers went wrong. They thought they could reject the teaching authority of the Church and start from scratch with just the Bible. And that is why Protestantism has fractured into thousands of denominations with many opposing doctrines.

“From the beginning, the fault lines of Protestantism appeared when Zwingli and Oecolampadius (two lesser Reformers) differed with Luther on the Real Presence, and the Anabaptists dissented on the Eucharist, infant Baptism, Ordination, and the function of civil authority…… By 1577, the book 200 Interpretations of the Word, “This is My Body” was published at Ingolstadt, Germany.”
(A Biblical Defence of Catholicism by Dave Armstrong)

The Bereans are sometimes used to prove that we should search the scriptures for the truth. And indeed we should, but to confirm the truth of what we have been taught. This is what the Bearans did. Paul taught them first, and then they searched the scriptures to confirm the truth of what he taught them.
 
Actually the verse you quoted does have three Mary's identified. You have misinterpreted the verse.

There is the Mary you mentioned... plus the mother of Jesus and Mary Magdaline. I would encourage you to read the verse before posting.
I know Mary Magdalene was there.
So what?
 
AND the mother of Jesus... whom you said was not there.
No I didn't. And BTW you are actually quoting from what Walpole wrote, though I endorse it.

What I said in an earlier post on the same point was:

Mark says that at the foot of the cross was “Mary the mother of the younger James and of Joses (Joseph), and Salome” This was obviously not Mary the mother of Jesus, so there is another Mary with sons called James and Joseph.

Matthew similarly says of the women at the foot of the cross “Among them were Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of James and Joseph” (Mt 26:56)

Luke says that at the tomb were “Mary Magdalene, Joanna, and Mary the mother of James” (Lk 24:10)

So there was another Mary whose children were named James, Joses (Joseph) and Salome.
Therefore it is likely that the James, Joseph and Salome described as brothers/sister of Jesus were the sons/daughter of a different Mary.

John writes “Standing by the cross of Jesus were his mother and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary of Magdala.” (Jn 19:25). Now this could mean that Jesus’ mother’s sister was there (whatever is meant by “sister”) and Mary the wife of Clopas or they were the same person, but either way there were at least three Mary’s at the cross – Mary the mother of Jesus, Mary the wife of Clopas and Mary of Magdalene. Now Mary the mother of James and Joseph could have been a fourth or she could have been Mary wife of Clopas. Either way Mary the mother of Jesus was not the mother of James and Joseph mentioned as Jesus’ brothers. And since they were listed first, neither was Simon and Judas, since if the were they would hardly have been listed after non-brothers.
 
No I didn't. And BTW you are actually quoting from what Walpole wrote, though I endorse it.

What I said in an earlier post on the same point was:
I am not quoting anything other than the Bible and yes you did at least infer that Mary at the cross was not the mother of Jesus.

John 19:25 says 4 women at the cross. You misread it as three. Mistakes happen. You can be forgiven for a simple reading mistake.
 
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I am not quoting anything other than the Bible and yes you did at least infer that Mary at the cross was not the mother of Jesus.

John 19:25 says 4 women at the cross. You misread it as three. Mistakes happen. You can be forgiven for a simple reading mistake.
Wrong again. Just because I didn't list them doesn't mean I implied they were not there.
I was concentration on one particular one.
But never mind. Mistakes happen. You can be forgiven for a simple reading mistake.
 
Wrong again. Just because I didn't list them doesn't mean I implied they were not there.
I was concentration on one particular one.
But never mind. Mistakes happen. You can be forgiven for a simple reading mistake.
If I make one I will let you know.
 
Yes, the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity came down from heaven and ascended back again.

That Son of God, the second person of the Trinity, was conceived as a human in the womb of Mary - 100% God, 100% man.
The mother of that person was Mary.

BTW it's polite and proper to give biblical references to any quotes you make from scripture.
What was conceived? Not the life of the word of life that appeared as a man. Mary is not and can not be the Mother of the eternal life that was with the Father from the beginning.

A body is noted by that life who spoke of it beforehand - His testimony.
Hebrews 10
Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said:
“Sacrifice and offering you did not desire,
but a body you prepared for me;
6with burnt offerings and sin offerings
you were not pleased.
7Then I said, ‘Here I am—it is written about me in the scroll—
I have come to do your will, my God.’ ”
 
What was conceived? Not the life of the word of life that appeared as a man. Mary is not and can not be the Mother of the eternal life that was with the Father from the beginning.

Never said it was.
The Son of God, the second person of the Trinity, always existed.
But in the womb of Mary he took on human nature.
Jesus is 100% God and 100% man.
His human nature came from her.
She conceived him in her womb by the power of the Holy Spirit, bore him in her womb and gave birth to him.
Therefore she is his mother.
The person that Mary gave birth to was both God and Man, one person.
Mary was the mother of that person.


A body is noted by that life who spoke of it beforehand - His testimony.
Hebrews 10
Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said:
“Sacrifice and offering you did not desire,
but a body you prepared for me;
6with burnt offerings and sin offerings
you were not pleased.
7Then I said, ‘Here I am—it is written about me in the scroll—
I have come to do your will, my God.’ ”

Christ came into the world from the body of Mary.
Has it occurred to you that the body that was prepared for God's Son could be the body of Mary that God had prepared to be a fitting vessel to carry his Son, pure and undefiled.
As Job said “Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? There is not one.” (Job 14:4).
 
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