Imo the Apostle Paul (Apostle to the GENTILES) could not have possibly uttered through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit that the LORD did not send him to baptize, but to preach the GOSPEL.. if baptism was essential for salvation...
Nor could Gentiles have received the Holy Spirit of God prior to being baptized, which is clearly the case in scripture.. they were SEALED in Christ when they believed.
Paul, as ALL discples are, was under the great commission of Mt 28:19,20. Nk 16:16 in going to all the world, all creatures teaching and baptizing them.
We know that Paul did baptize, 1 Cor 1:14,16 and he did not sin by doing so even though he said "For Christ sent me not to baptize."
There is no contradiction then between the great commission verses and 1 Cor 1:17. 1 Cor 1:17 is a "not-but" elliptical statement where emphasis is put on one thing over another but not to the exclusion of either. Paul as an inspired apostle put more emphasis on preaching over baptizing but NOT to the exclusion of baptizing. Others could baptize while Paul preached and Paul did baptize some himself.
An example of another 'not-but' elliptical statement can be found in 1 Pet 3:3,4:
"Whose adorning let it
NOT be that outward [adorning] of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;
BUT [let it be] the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, [even the ornament] of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price."
If in 1 Cor 1:17 Paul is literally saying he is not to baptize at all, then here Peter is telling wives to not put on apparel. But Peter's point is that wives are to put more emphasis on the inward adorning over the outward adorning but not to the total exclusion of the outward adorning. Just as Paul put more emphasis on preaching over baptizing but not to the total exclusion of baptizing.
If you care for me to, I will show you how Paul, in healing the division at Corinth, how Paul in 1 Cor 1:12,13 made baptism essential to salvation, that this is proof text for the necessity of water baptism.
We know the Ephesians were "sealed" but we also know their faith included baptism:
Eph 2:8----faith>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>saves
1pet3:21---baptism>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>saves
Since there is just one way to be saved, then thier faith MUST have included baptism.
Eventide said:
What must I do to be saved.. ?
a) Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved..
or
b) Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and be baptized, and thou shalt be saved..
Once again imo this is a distinction between Israel and the church.. the gospel went out from Jerusalem and is to the Jew first.. and after their continuous rejection of the gospel, the LORD raised up Paul to bring it to the GENTILES..
It's no wonder Peter speaks of baptism in a like figure which saves.. because he is the Apostle to the circumcision.. and again, we hear no such commandment from Paul.. and rather whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be SAVED.
If you look at my reply #88, I showed that believing includes being baptized.
From Acts 15:11 "But we believe that we (Jews) shall be saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in like manner as they (Gentiles)."
So Jews and Gentiles are saved in like manner way. The like manner way the Jews in Acts 2 and Gentiles in Acts 10 were saved was by water baptism in thename of the Lord for remission of sins. We know that Paul taught the same thing that Peter did in Acts 2:38:
Gal 1:23 "But they had heard only, That he which persecuted us in times past now preacheth the faith which once he destroyed. "
1) "the faith" refers to the gospel system of faith found from Matthew to Revelation. As Jude said "Contend for
the faith".
2) Saul once persecuted the church at Jerusalem, yet Paul now preacheth (present tense) the faith he once detroyed. The faith at Jerusalem consisted of Acts 2:38, so that is what Paul once destroyed but now preacheth.