Christian Forums

This is a sample guest message. Register a free account today to become a member! Once signed in, you'll be able to participate on this site by adding your own topics and posts, as well as connect with other members through your own private inbox!

Is Jesus genetically related to Mary?

Hi jeremiah1five

So now we're back to the 'Adam wasn't a human because being a human means you must have someone's previous DNA.

God bless,
Ted
Is there a disconnect?
I have continually said Adam and the woman were human. But several times you reply that I said they weren't.
What's going on? Where's the disconnect?
We as humans have DNA, right?
It was passed on in the gene-pool from Adam and Eve onward to every human born into the world.
So, if we all have DNA it came from our first parents.
God created our first parents.
Thus, God created every cell and material in the human body and this includes DNA in our first parents.
Where's the disconnect?
 
Hi jeremiah1five

I'm guessing that you and I are talking about two different things. Only men are born with a sin nature?

God bless,
Ted
The trick here is:
Adam and Eve were not made with a sin nature. The serpent conned them into developing a sin nature. This nature then was passed on.

Let us go somewhere so we can get here..
LOL

Disease is a type and shadow of genetic code development. Covid has really opened the door to understand sin.

First SARS 1 then the variants. These all are recorded somewhere in our genes (if we get the disease). The more variants the more that can be recorded

Disease is a type (parallel) similar to sin. I am not saying that sickness is sin. The books record what we do.

Because the disease is recorded, it does not mean we will get the disease. Just because Jesus bore our sins does not mean he had the sins.

Mississippi redneck
eddif
 
The trick here is:
Adam and Eve were not made with a sin nature. The serpent conned them into developing a sin nature. This nature then was passed on.
So, they developed a sin nature and then sinned.
What was their make up before they developed a sin nature?
Let us go somewhere so we can get here..
LOL
Disease is a type and shadow of genetic code development. Covid has really opened the door to understand sin.
Cancer is the door to understand sin, but it is not accepted by the world as sin because that would have them acknowledge there is a God and that is something they refuse to do. It is a godless world in their own mind despite all the evidence around them that proves there is a God:

18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Rom. 1:18–20.
First SARS 1 then the variants. These all are recorded somewhere in our genes (if we get the disease). The more variants the more that can be recorded
Disease is a type (parallel) similar to sin. I am not saying that sickness is sin. The books record what we do.
Because the disease is recorded, it does not mean we will get the disease. Just because Jesus bore our sins does not mean he had the sins.
Mississippi redneck
eddif
The word translated from the Greek "harmatia" into English is "sin." It literally means "missing the mark" (think archery.)
What is the "mark" that we "miss?"
The glory of God.
It has nothing to do with disease. Disease is only a symptom of our true condition.
And our true condition when God created man was "sin-ful." It has nothing to do with disease but is the result of God creating a being from dirt. God did not reduplicate any aspect of His glory in man, and this is why he "fell short" of God's glory. He sinned because he was created a sinner. He is not a sinner because he sinned.
 
Is there a disconnect?
I have continually said Adam and the woman were human. But several times you reply that I said they weren't.
What's going on? Where's the disconnect?
We as humans have DNA, right?
It was passed on in the gene-pool from Adam and Eve onward to every human born into the world.
So, if we all have DNA it came from our first parents.
God created our first parents.
Thus, God created every cell and material in the human body and this includes DNA in our first parents.
Where's the disconnect?
The disconnect is in your statements. Now you're saying that Adam was a human. But your previous post said that it was Mary's DNA that made Jesus human. So, either it doesn't take Mary's DNA to make Jesus human...or Adam wasn't human, because Adam wasn't created with a previous human's DNA.

God bless,
Ted
 
So, they developed a sin nature and then sinned.
What was their make up before they developed a sin nature?
No Adam and Eve sinned and that was the way sin entered mankind.

Romans 5:12 kjv
12. Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
13. (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
.

Galatians 3:19 kjv
19. Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the
hand of a mediator.

Later the solution for eternal life came.
Luke 16:16 kjv
16. The law was added The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.

Ephesians 2:8 kjv
8. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

The order of mankind IMHO:
1. Living soul
2. Sin entered mankind
3. Law came as schoolmaster till Christ came
4. John the Baptist came to prepare the way of the Lord
5. Jesus came to fulfill the law
6. Jesus fulfilled the law
7. Jesus returned to heaven as our representative
8 Holy Spirit came to give us power to be witnesses so others could be saved

Is this list all inclusive? Help out if I missed a step or order it better than I did.
Or if my comments need help, then do a better job.

Mississippi redneck
eddif
 
The disconnect is in your statements.
And here is the disconnect jeremiah1five gave.
13 As saith the proverb of the ancients, Wickedness proceedeth from the wicked:
1 Sa 24:12–13.
The problem is this statement (in scripture)
is not from God or one of his prophets, but from the ancients. Men of former times commenters that were just men.

Jeremiah 31:29 kjv
29. In those days they shall say no more, The fathers have eaten a sour grape, and the children's teeth are set on edge.
30. But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge.

This Jeremiah passage is an example of a change from what the traditions men say to the reality of what God says.

Another example

Mark 7:11 kjv
11. But ye say, If a man shall say to his father or mother, It is Corban, that is to say, a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; he shall be free.
12. And ye suffer him no more to do ought for his father or his mother;
13. Making the word of God of none affect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye.

1 Samuel 24:12-13
Is a perversion of scripture from ancients (men of old).

Wickedness actually comes from Lucifer and is accepted by Adam and Eve.

Adam and Eve were not made sinful. Adam and Eve were made very good but they sinned.

The book of Job gives the very best example.
Job 42:7 kjv
7. After the LORD had said these things to Job, he said to Eliphaz the Temanite, “I am angry with you and your two friends, because you have not spoken the truth about me, as my servant Job has.

So after reading all the chapters where the friends of Jod spoke, we find out in hindsight they were wrong.

There are statements that Pharisees made that are just not true.

But the Samuel passage is kind of hidden. I try and watch out for passages that are given by the wrong people. Not because of intelligence, but by finding out all of Job’s friends were wrong.

Mississippi redneck
eddif
 
No Adam and Eve sinned and that was the way sin entered mankind.
Where did their sin come from?
The order of mankind IMHO:
1. Living soul
2. Sin entered mankind
3. Law came as schoolmaster till Christ came
4. John the Baptist came to prepare the way of the Lord
5. Jesus came to fulfill the law
6. Jesus fulfilled the law
7. Jesus returned to heaven as our representative
8 Holy Spirit came to give us power to be witnesses so others could be saved

Is this list all inclusive? Help out if I missed a step or order it better than I did.
Or if my comments need help, then do a better job.
Mississippi redneck
eddif
Let me say something here in posting Scripture.

8 I am the LORD: that is my name:
And my glory will I not give to another,
Isaiah 42:8.

I am the LORD, and there is none else.
7 I form the light, and create darkness:
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
Isaiah 45:6–7.

Many in the Church believe God created Adam and the woman holy. Holiness is one of the many glories the LORD possesses, and it says here that His glory He does not give to another.
So, if Adam was not possessing this glory of God (holiness) at creation then Adam was NOT holy he was UN-holy. He was fallen SHORT of the glory of God in holiness. This also applies to God's Righteousness and many in the Church believe Adam was created righteous. So, if God does not give His glory to another then Adam was NOT righteous, he was UN-righteous.
Some in the Church believe Adam was created sinless but again sinlessness is a Nature of God and if sinlessness is a glory of God and Isaiah says "[His] glory He does not give to another" then this means that Adam was NOT created sinless but SINFUL. And this means Adam and the woman were created fallen SHORT of the glory that is God.

Isaiah also writes under inspiration of the Holy Spirit that God says He creates "darkness" and "evil." So, when God created man and woman, they were created unholy, unrighteous, sinful, and evil.
Now, I know these truths fall hard on your beliefs you currently hold, and it did mine as well years ago, but I have learned to let Scripture inform my beliefs and tell me WHAT to believe and I STOPPED many, many years ago of telling Scripture what to say.
Now the question is will you allow Scripture to tell you what to believe or will you reject God's Word for the vanities of your mind?
 
And here is the disconnect jeremiah1five gave.

The problem is this statement (in scripture)
is not from God or one of his prophets, but from the ancients. Men of former times commenters that were just men.
You don't know that. Did you know Adam was a prophet? Do you actually believe the only prophets of the LORD are the ones mentioned in Scripture? How many "Man of God" are mentioned in Samuel and Kings and Chronicles? How many prophets are named there that don't have books written in their names? So, you don't know where that proverb came from but one thing is true and that it is in Scripture, and it is put forth as truth and this truth is very logical and reasonable and sound. Wickedness comes from the wicked. That's the ONLY place it comes from. It surely doesn't come from holy or righteousness or sinlessness, does it?
Do you believe sin comes from sinner and wickedness comes from holy?
Jeremiah 31:29 kjv
29. In those days they shall say no more, The fathers have eaten a sour grape, and the children's teeth are set on edge.
30. But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge.

This Jeremiah passage is an example of a change from what the traditions men say to the reality of what God says.

Another example

Mark 7:11 kjv
11. But ye say, If a man shall say to his father or mother, It is Corban, that is to say, a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; he shall be free.
12. And ye suffer him no more to do ought for his father or his mother;
13. Making the word of God of none affect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye.

1 Samuel 24:12-13
Is a perversion of scripture from ancients (men of old).
Let's look at the context instead of posting a passage that seems to agree with what you've said:

9 And David said to Saul, Wherefore hearest thou men’s words, saying, Behold, David seeketh thy hurt?
10 Behold, this day thine eyes have seen how that the LORD had delivered thee to day into mine hand in the cave: and some bade me kill thee: but mine eye spared thee; and I said, I will not put forth mine hand against my lord; for he is the LORD’s anointed.
11 Moreover, my father, see, yea, see the skirt of thy robe in my hand: for in that I cut off the skirt of thy robe, and killed thee not, know thou and see that there is neither evil nor transgression in mine hand, and I have not sinned against thee; yet thou huntest my soul to take it.
12 The LORD judge between me and thee, and the LORD avenge me of thee: but mine hand shall not be upon thee.
13 As saith the proverb of the ancients, Wickedness proceedeth from the wicked: but mine hand shall not be upon thee. 14 After whom is the king of Israel come out? after whom dost thou pursue? after a dead dog, after a flea. 15 The LORD therefore be judge, and judge between me and thee, and see, and plead my cause, and deliver me out of thine hand.
1 Sam. 24:9–15.

David finds Saul sleeping in a cave. He doesn't kill him but takes a piece of his clothing showing that as he slept David could have killed him and become King. But David doesn't kill him. To kill Saul while he slept would have been cowardly and wickedness and David states the obvious truth that wickedness comes from the wicked. This is equal to saying sin comes from sinner. This is an ancient proverb and speaks truth. A truth David used to validate the opposite of this proverb that righteousness comes from the righteous.
Wickedness actually comes from Lucifer and is accepted by Adam and Eve.
It has nothing to do with what one accepts. The question is do you believe wickedness comes from wicked or does it come from holy?
Adam and Eve were not made sinful. Adam and Eve were made very good but they sinned.
Where did their sin come from?
Do you even know what sin is?
The book of Job gives the very best example.
Job 42:7 kjv
7. After the LORD had said these things to Job, he said to Eliphaz the Temanite, “I am angry with you and your two friends, because you have not spoken the truth about me, as my servant Job has.

So after reading all the chapters where the friends of Jod spoke, we find out in hindsight they were wrong.

There are statements that Pharisees made that are just not true.
Post it.
But the Samuel passage is kind of hidden. I try and watch out for passages that are given by the wrong people. Not because of intelligence, but by finding out all of Job’s friends were wrong.
It is revealed in Scripture, so it is not hidden. What the his-ell are you talking about?
David is not "the wrong people" when he said it. Again, what are you talking about?
You obviously resist Scripture truth and instead hold on to what YOU want to believe instead of what God WANTS you to believe.
But I understand stubbornness and rebellion against God and His Word.
 
It has nothing to do with what one accepts. The question is do you believe wickedness comes from wicked or does it come from holy?
It came from Satan in the garden . In the garden God had made Adam very good.

In the New Testament it mentions the father of some is the Devil
…….

Romans 1:20
Seeds were made at creation, but the understanding of the seeds being theWord Of God was hidden till Jesus told the disciples the meaning, thus it was hidden.

Matthew 13:35 kjv
35. That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.

eddif
 
It came from Satan in the garden . In the garden God had made Adam very good.
But God said every man is responsible for his or her own sin.

30. But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge. Jer. 31:30.

Where did the sin of Adam and the woman come from?
In the New Testament it mentions the father of some is the Devil
The word "devil" is an adjective in your target verse.

adjective: [is] a word or phrase naming an attribute, added to or grammatically related to a noun to modify or describe it.

The noun in the verse are the Pharisees, but it doesn't mean they are from "Satan" for in Acts 6 it says, "a great many priests were obedient to the Word [Christ]" and a man can only have one father and Christ makes no distinction in John 8:44 so He's making a characteristic description of some of the Pharisees. Possibly those that were in this group in John 8:44. But I doubt Saul/Paul was in this group because his Father is God.
So, "devil" means "traducer" which means "false accuser" or "one who impugns the character of another" or simply a "liar."
Romans 1:20
Seeds were made at creation, but the understanding of the seeds being the Word Of God was hidden till Jesus told the disciples the meaning, thus it was hidden.
You're taking a great leap here to bring in the word "seed(s)." Nowhere are 'seeds' mentioned so you're adding to the bible and injuring your understanding.

20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Rom. 1:19–20.

And Paul is talking about the world. He is not talking about "seed(s)" because in time microscopes would be invented and we can now see 'seed(s)' and this in time we live in would make God a liar if He was meaning [you can't see] 'seed(s) because they were hidden. Romans 1:20 is talking about the creation of the material world and not human biology. And those things 'hidden' Paul says are clearly seen (but if he means 'seed(s) well no one can see seeds of humans without a microscope.

The Word of God is not hidden either. It is revealed and for the most part understood by the Covenant children of Israel. It's just their understanding was not complete because they only understood the letter of the Law and Christ taught also the spirit of the Law. The Seed of the Word was revealed. It was their understanding that was darkened.
Matthew 13:35 kjv
35. That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.
eddif
Here is the original passage Matthew says Jesus was doing:

2 I will open my mouth in a parable:
I will utter dark sayings of old:
3 Which we have heard and known,
And our fathers have told us.
4 We will not hide them from their children,
Shewing to the generation to come
The praises of the LORD, and his strength,
And his wonderful works that he hath done.
Ps 78:2–4.

There is nothing about 'dark sayings' being hidden but they were revealed just as I said above. It was oral history the Hebrew fathers gave to their children. It was revealed.
But it was hidden from unbelievers.
The Seed of the Word of God was revealed to God's Covenant people but were parables whose real meaning was hidden to unbelievers.
 
Jesus was borne by Mary, but he was concieved by the Holy Spirit within Mary. Jesus is not genetically related to Joseph, is he genetically related to Mary?
Attention Members: On August 10, 2023, I made a post on this topic. Only recently, the content of my post have been nagging me. After a little scriptural research and meditation, I feel bound to make a needed correction. I am convinced that Jesus does have a genetic linage through his mother Mary. Scriptures support it: Isaiah 11:1, 10; Revelation 5:5; 22:16.

Although the Bible is not always detailed in its accounts, it seems obvious to me-now-that when God fertilized (implant Jesus’ essence) one of Mary’s ovum’s. However, to avoid the transference of inherited genetic contamination/sin, He removed such effects from the ovum or shielded it to protect the embryo.
 
Attention Members: On August 10, 2023, I made a post on this topic. Only recently, the content of my post have been nagging me. After a little scriptural research and meditation, I feel bound to make a needed correction. I am convinced that Jesus does have a genetic linage through his mother Mary. Scriptures support it: Isaiah 11:1, 10; Revelation 5:5; 22:16.

Although the Bible is not always detailed in its accounts, it seems obvious to me-now-that when God fertilized (implant Jesus’ essence) one of Mary’s ovum’s. However, to avoid the transference of inherited genetic contamination/sin, He removed such effects from the ovum or shielded it to protect the embryo.
Or the contamination/sin was never there to start with in Mary's ovum . Genetic you say ?
 
Last edited:
Or the contamination/sin was never there to start with . Genetic you say ?
I just chose to insert here, and not alone.

In the last days knowledge will increase.

As we look into genetics a history of a disease may be turned off. The heritage of Mary may have been there but turned off.

Eight folks got off the boat. Sin was not as great (continual) after the flood.

We tend to think like our group (till we turn off some things our group believes). Noah and family watched the almost entire race be destroyed (they switched off every bad thing they could).

eddif
 
Back
Top