Acts 3:13 says Jesus is a servant of the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob yet Exodus 3:14,15 says the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob is the I Am and YHWH.
How do you deal with that?
Jesus Christ Claims to be Yahweh - John 8:23-25
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Acts 3:13 says Jesus is a servant of the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob yet Exodus 3:14,15 says the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob is the I Am and YHWH.
How do you deal with that?
The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob became flesh, became a Man, became a little lower than the angels, and demonstrated what it is to be a servant of God.
- But you denied the Holy One and the Just, and asked for a murderer to be granted to you
Jesus Christ is the Holy One!
So when Peter saw it, he responded to the people: “Men of Israel, why do you marvel at this? Or why look so intently at us, as though by our own power or godliness we had made this man walk? The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified His Servant Jesus, whom you delivered up and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let Him go. But you denied the Holy One and the Just, and asked for a murderer to be granted to you, 15 and killed the Prince of life, whom God raised from the dead, of which we are witnesses. Acts 3:12-15
In that day a man will look to his Maker, and his eyes will have respect for the Holy One of Israel. Isaiah 17:7
For thus says the Lord GOD, the Holy One of Israel:
“In returning and rest you shall be saved;
In quietness and confidence shall be your strength.”
But you would not, Isaiah 30:15
It was The Spirit of Christ, Who was speaking through the prophets of the Old Testament saying thus says the LORD!
Of this salvation the prophets have inquired and searched carefully, who prophesied of the grace that would come to you, searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of Christ who was in them was indicating when He testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow. 1 Peter 1:10-11
Non-scriptural opinion.
God's holy one, not God the holy one.
Acts 13
35So also, He says in another Psalm:
‘You will not let Your Holy One see decay.’
Therefore Jesus isn't the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. There are over a dozen titles, arguably two dozen, that Jesus doesn't share with God.
YHWH is the Holy One of Israel, but Jesus is YHWH's holy one. That means he isn't God.
Psalm 16
10For You will not abandon my soul to Sheol,
nor will You let Your Holy One see decay.
Using "God's Holy One" as the basis for why you believe Jesus is God yet Jesus isn't the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, YHWH, or the I AM isn't a sound justification for your premise. God has many holy ones.
Zechariah 14
5 And the valley of my mountains shall be stopped up, for the valley of the mountains shall touch the side of it; and you shall flee as you fled from the earthquake in the days of Uzzi′ah king of Judah. Then the Lord your God will come, and all the holy ones with him.
The scriptures teach us that God became flesh.
If you choose to deny what the scripture teaches then that is your choice.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14
These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16
Not according to the Greek manuscripts. There is no mention of God in 1 Timothy 3:16. The version you're quoting from is probably the KJV or NKJV, but as new information came along, scholars and truth seekers accepted this because there is honor and righteousness in conforming to the truth rather than rigidly clinging to dogma long since disproven.
Attached is an image of the altered manuscript.
1 Timothy 3 (BSB)
16By common confession, the mystery of godliness is great:
He appeared in the flesh,
was vindicated by the Spirit,
was seen by angels,
was proclaimed among the nations,
was believed in throughout the world,
was taken up in glory.
1 Timothy 3 (CEV)
16Here is the great mystery of our religion:
Christ came as a human.
The Spirit proved
that he pleased God,
and he was seen by angels.
Christ was preached
to the nations.
People in this world
put their faith in him,
and he was taken up to glory.
1 Timothy 3 (Amp)
16And great, we confess, is the mystery [the hidden truth] of godliness:
He (Jesus Christ) who was revealed in human flesh,
Was justified and vindicated in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the nations,
Believed on in the world,
Taken up in glory.
I'm not going to ignore evidence that shows that this scripture has been changed here at 1 Timothy 3:16, by placing the word he with God. The mystery of godliness is that it's the only begotten Son of God who was manifested in the flesh/human. This is something you want me to deny. It was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human, I'm not going to deny that. I'm not going to deny that it is the only begotten Son of God that is referred to when the scriptures speak of the "mystery of godliness."
God's purpose as revealed in Jesus Christ remained a sacred secret, or mystery it was kept in silence for long lasting times.(Romans 16:25-27) For over 4000 years, since the rebellion in Eden, men of faith had awaited the fulfillment of God's promise of a seed to bruise the head of the serpent like Adversary and by that means bring relief to mankind.(Genesis 3:15) The only begotten Son of God is that seed. When the full limit of the time arrived, God sent forth his Son, and through him revealed the meaning of the sacred secret, gave the definitive answer to the issue raised by God's Adversary, and provided the means for redeeming mankind from sin and death through the ransom sacrifice of his Son.
I don't shutter because I love God and believe that he sent his only begotten Son to mankind to die for mankind and that God resurrected his only begotten Son three days after his death and that any who exercises faith in this will get everlasting life. I don't shudder because I believe this.
Any person who is a baptized JW and then he/she chooses not to believe what the JW's have taught them from the scriptures, and chooses to be baptized in another religion that teaches false things about God and his only begotten Son will be disfellowshipped. These people knew before they were baptized as a JW that if a baptized person in the JW congregation starts believing false things and then tries to preach these false things about God and his Son Jesus Christ to other JW's they would be disfellowshipped.
YHWH is the only True God, he is the one who created all things and he is the source of all life, he is the Father and God of Jesus Christ. So Jesus Christ is the only begotten Son of YHWH God. YHWH the only True God sent his only begotten Son to mankind to die for mankind then three days after the only begotten Son of God's death, the only True God YHWH resurrected his only begotten Son from death and any of mankind who exercises faith in this will get everlasting life.
No JW is a true Christian because their theology about Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit is BLASPHEMY!
Not a JW myself, but amen nevertheless. I agree completely with your theology about who God and Jesus are.
I agree that the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.
Notice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:
1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.
1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.
1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.
1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.
1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.
1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.
1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.
1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.
They render there translations this way because at John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun theos (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was with (God). This first theos is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case the Word was with the Almighty God (“and the Word was with [the] God”).
On the other hand, there is no article before the second occurrence of theos (god) at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word.” Yet as I have seen that many translations render this second theos (a predicate noun) as “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” So on what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (“the”), but it did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions “with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.” As the Journal notes, this indicates that the logos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: “The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [theosʹ] cannot be regarded as definite.”
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was “divine,” “godlike,” “a god,” but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called “the Word” in his role as God’s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
So you can say regarding the NWT when it renders the last part of John 1:1 as, "the word was a "god" that it isn't to do with context or grammar but there are other translators of other Bibles that disagree with you. These translations existed before the NWT and these translations render the last part of John 1:1 as "the word was a god, a god was the word, the word was a divine being, etc. but not as, the word was God.
People of Jesus time said he was a blasphemer. I don't agree with them and just as I don't agree with them I don't agree with you. When it comes to my personal life I decide whether I'm a Christian or not. I don't let other people decide that for me.
Nothing of what you have written makes any difference to the fact that Jesus Christ is YHWH. Almighty God and 100% coequal with God the Father in the Eternal Godhead
Only this is what the Bible actually teaches. Anything else is UTTER BLASPHEMY
Nor do you understand Greek grammar
Only the teachings of the Bible and our beliefs on these teachings will confirm who are truly born again Christians and who are not
No person can ever make it to heaven who does not 100% believe that Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit are YHWH.
It is Biblically IMPOSSIBLE
SolaScriptura said,
"In the NWT for Isaiah 9:6, the Prophecy of Jesus Christ's Birth, etc, He is very clearly called, "Mighty God", in capitals, not, "mighty god". https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/isaiah/9/
The exact same Hebrew, "’êl Gibbôr", is also used in chapter 10, for the Father, and also translated as "Mighty God" (verse 21), https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/isaiah/10/"[/QUOTE\]
JW's have said that they understand that the word "elGibbor" which is translated "Mighty God" at both Isaiah 9:6 and Isaiah 10:21 is applied to both God and the only begotten Son of God.
At Isaiah 43:10 YHWH God says: “Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.” Does this mean that, because Jesus Christ is prophetically called “Mighty God” at Isaiah 9:6, Jesus must be YHWH God? The context answers, No. None of the idolatrous Gentile nations formed a god before YHWH God, because no one existed before YHWH God. Nor would they at a future time form any real, live god that was able to prophesy. (Isaiah 46:9, 10) But that does not mean that YHWH God never caused to exist anyone who is properly referred to as a god. (Psalm 82:1, 6; John 1:1) At Isaiah 10:21 YHWH God is referred to as “Mighty God,” just as Jesus is in Isaiah 9:6; but only YHWH God is ever called El Shaddai which is translated as “God Almighty.” So while it is true that
El Gibbor (Mighty God) is applied to both YHWH God and the only begotten Son of God, El Shaddai (God Almighty) is only applied to YHWH God never to the only begotten Son of God
"In the NWT for Isaiah 9:6, the Prophecy of Jesus Christ's Birth, etc, He is very clearly called, "Mighty God", in capitals, not, "mighty god". https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/isaiah/9/
The exact same Hebrew, "’êl Gibbôr", is also used in chapter 10, for the Father, and also translated as "Mighty God" (verse 21), https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/isaiah/10/"[/QUOTE\]
JW's have said that they understand that the word "elGibbor" which is translated "Mighty God" at both Isaiah 9:6 and Isaiah 10:21 is applied to both God and the only begotten Son of God.
At Isaiah 43:10 YHWH God says: “Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.” Does this mean that, because Jesus Christ is prophetically called “Mighty God” at Isaiah 9:6, Jesus must be YHWH God? The context answers, No. None of the idolatrous Gentile nations formed a god before YHWH God, because no one existed before YHWH God. Nor would they at a future time form any real, live god that was able to prophesy. (Isaiah 46:9, 10) But that does not mean that YHWH God never caused to exist anyone who is properly referred to as a god. (Psalm 82:1, 6; John 1:1) At Isaiah 10:21 YHWH God is referred to as “Mighty God,” just as Jesus is in Isaiah 9:6; but only YHWH God is ever called El Shaddai which is translated as “God Almighty.” So while it is true that
El Gibbor (Mighty God) is applied to both YHWH God and the only begotten Son of God, El Shaddai (God Almighty) is only applied to YHWH God never to the only begotten Son of God
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What you choose to believe is your choice. All I've said is that there are others who understand Greek grammar that disagree with you.
I'm not going to deny that the only True God YHWH has a only begotten Son that he sent to mankind to die for mankind, then three days after YHWH God's only begotten Son's death YHWH God resurrected his only begotten Son from the dead, and all who exercise faith in this will receive everlasting life.
Again, you are going off of the opinion of man, and in Greek.
We see what is written in the scriptures and context of 1 Timothy 3:16 and the word THEOS (Where we get the word Theology) means GOD.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14
These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16
Question:
Do you believe the meaning of the word THEOS "God", changed in meaning from verse 15, to mean "Man" in verse 16?
I have asked this question three times with no answer from you. If you don't know then just say so.
Those who you have quoted to "support" your understanding of John 1:1, are clearly misusing and abusing the basics of Greek grammar
In John 8:54 we have a very similar construction of the Greek grammar as John 1:1c
"ο πατηρ μου ο δοξαζων με ον υμεις λεγετε οτι θεος υμων εστιν",
Here we have Jesus Christ as the Speaker, Who says "ο πατηρ μου" (My Father). and then, "ον υμεις λεγετε οτι θεος υμων εστιν", literally, "of Whom you say God of us He is"
Here we have "ο πατηρ", (the Father) as the subject, and the Greek article is used. Then we have "θεος", which is the predicate in the sentence, and the article is not used. In John 1:1c, "Θεὸς" does not have the Greek article, as it is the predicate; and "ὁ Λόγος", has the article as it is the subject
According to your reasoning, and those you have quoted as Greek grammar "experts", WHY does not John 8:54 read, "of Whom you say a god of us He is"? The construction the the Greek is the EXACT SAME as John 1:1c!
The ONLY REASON why it is not translated as "a god", but "God", is that it here refers to the Father!
This is what is known as PERVERTING the Word of God to suit ones theology!
WHO would you say that Matthew 3:3 refers to?
You believe that Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit are YHWH God, that's your choice and your right to believe. I believe differently and not just myself but others some of whom understand Greek grammar too, who disagree that Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit are YHWH God. We will continue to say and believe that we're Christians no matter how much you disagree. You have a right to disagree. That's the truth about you and I, is that we disagree.
Are you going to ignore the context, and the Greek word that is used in verse 15 as well as verse 16, which is translated as God?
These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16
Question:
Do you believe the meaning of the word THEOS "God", changed in meaning from verse 15, to mean "Man" in verse 16?
