1Corinthians 13:1 If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but do not have love, I have become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal.
tongues of men. Cf.
1Co_12:10,
1Co_12:28;
1Co_14:4-33. That this gift involved actual languages is established in
Act_2:4-13 (see notes there), and affirmed in this text by Paul's calling it "of men"—clearly a reference to human language. This was the gift which the Corinthians prized so highly, abused so greatly, and counterfeited so disastrously. God gave the ability to speak in a language not known to the speaker, as a sign with limited function (see notes on
1Co_14:1-33).
tongues … of angels. The apostle was writing in general, hypothetical terms. There is no biblical teaching of any special angelic language that people could learn to speak.
love. Self-giving love that is more concerned with giving than receiving (
Joh_3:16; cf.
1Co_14:1;
Mat_5:44-45;
Joh_13:1,
Joh_13:34-35;
Joh_15:9;
Rom_5:10;
Eph_2:4-7;
Php_2:2;
Col_3:14;
Heb_10:24). The word was not admired and thus seldom used in ancient Greek literature, but it is common in the NT. Without love, no matter how linguistically gifted a person is to speak his own language, other languages, or even (hypothetically) the speech of angels, his speech is noise only. In NT times, rites honoring the pagan deities Cybele, Bacchus, and Dionysius included ecstatic noises accompanied by gongs, cymbals, and trumpets. Unless the speech of the Corinthians was done in love, it was no better than the gibberish of pagan ritual.
If I speak with the tongues (
glossa)
of men and of angels - Paul has just mentioned
tongues in 1 Cor 12:30
+ "All do not have gifts of healings, do they?
All do not speak with tongues, do they? All do not interpret, do they?" His mention of tongues (and not the other spiritual gifts) would suggest that this gift was a significant issue among the saints at Corinth. Of course because it is a speaking gift ("
sign gift"), it is more "
showy" than some of the other gifts.
THOUGHT - Notice that this "
IF" introduces a
THIRD CLASS CONDITIONAL statement which might be paraphrased "If we could continually speak in tongues of men or tongues of angels (in their angelic language)." Paul is not advocating or promoting angelic languages, but simply postulating, if that "higher" supernatural language
were even possible for finite natural men, it would
still be worthless! That's his main point. He is not saying it is possible for men to speak angelic languages. It is not even logical. Only angels can speak angelic language. It is very easy to misinterpret what Paul is saying, but one must always be cautious in applying isolated passages simply because they sound good and make us feel good. That is taking a text out of context and making it a
pretext which is always a potentially dangerous practice (A
pretext is an excuse to do something or say something that is not accurate.
Pretexts may be based on a half-truth or developed from taking a passage out of context to suit one's own interest or purpose.). Be a Berean (Acts 17:11
+)!
Question - Is there a heavenly language? What language will we speak in heaven?
Answer: There is some conjecture as to whether there is such a thing as a “heavenly language.” Is there a language unknown on earth but spoken fluently in heaven? If so, is it possible for someone to learn to speak this esoteric language? Is it possibly a gift of the Holy Spirit?
First, we should point out that the expression “heavenly language” is nowhere found in Scripture. Also, the phrase “tongues of angels” is used only once, in 1 Corinthians 13:1, “If I speak in the tongues of men or of angels, but do not have love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal.”
Some have suggested that Paul’s reference to “tongues of angels” is proof that there is a heavenly language that only angels—and certain Spirit-filled believers—can speak. Let’s take a closer look at the verse and its context.
When Paul speaks of “tongues of men,” he is most likely referring to the gift given on the Day of Pentecost when the apostles were imbued by the Holy Spirit to speak languages virtually unknown to them (Acts 2:4-12). “Tongues of men” is a reference to the various human languages in use at the time. The Corinthian brethren so prized this miraculous gift that it became severely abused and counterfeited. Paul addressed this problem in his epistle. The Corinthians needed to know that God gave the ability to speak a foreign language as a sign, and the gift had some restrictions (1 Corinthians 14:1-33).
When Paul speaks of the “tongues of angels,” he isn’t speaking literally of a “heavenly language,” as some want to believe, but is using a hyperbolic expression. Hyperbole is an exaggeration to make a point. Paul is saying that, no matter how gifted one may be, whether in his own language, in foreign languages, or even in the hypothetical speech of angels, it’s all moot without love. In fact, without love, one’s speech is no better than the useless babble of the pagan religions. The pagan culture of Corinth honored their gods in ritualistic ceremonies accompanied by loud musical instruments such as gongs, cymbals, and trumpets. Their worship was a chaotic cacophony.
Speaking in “tongues of angels” is probably best understood as having the ability to speak with “divine eloquence.” As one well-known Bible scholar put it, “Paul is simply saying that, were he to have the ability to speak with the skill and eloquence of the greatest men, even with angelic eloquence, he would only become a noisy gong . . .”
The fact is that Paul used hyperbolic language elsewhere, including in the very next verse, with his mention of faith “to remove mountains.” His exaggerations serve to emphasize the necessity of love. Showing love is more important than the grandest, most miraculous action imaginable.
To suggest that Paul implies that “tongues of angels” is a kind of “heavenly language” is to go beyond what Scripture actually teaches. It is taking the expression completely out of context in an attempt to teach something other than what Paul actually said. GotQuestions.org