Does Jesus do the saving or the man's works?
Does Jesus do the saving or man's faith? Isn't it your contention that we are saved by Grace THROUGH faith alone? It's my contention that we are saved by Grace through faith WORKING in love, thus faith and works together. Why do you limit God's Saving Grace to only faith?
Further afield, there's not enough information to conclude whether the person has come to the faith that saves. Jesus instructs His Church that we're to accept him on grounds that there's nothing counter to the assertion that he is saved. But Jesus also warns that people within the church may not be saved.
Then the person who is ostensibly "saved" when he turns his life over to Christ, doesn't know yet whether the faith he has displayed is "saving faith" yet? He won't know if it "stuck" until he "shows" his "true faith" by doing righteous works? Once he "shows" (however you want to define this) his faith, can he lose this "saving faith"?
That's simply not true. As I pointed out, Clement of Rome (100 AD, third Roman Father behind Peter & Paul) embraced faith as saving, rejecting works -- even good works.
Are you talking about this ONE quote from Clement?
"All these, therefore, were highly honored, and made great, not for their own sake, or for their own works, or for the righteousness which they wrought, but through the operation of His will. And we, too, being called by His will in Christ Jesus,
are not justified by ourselves, nor by our own wisdom, or understanding, or godliness, or works which we have wrought in holiness of heart; but by that faith through which, from the beginning, Almighty God has justified all men; to whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen."
He also said this, in the same letter:
"Let us clothe ourselves with concord and humility, ever exercising self-control, standing far off from all whispering and evil-speaking,
being justified by our works, and not our words."
Does he contradict himself within the same letter? Uh-oh. I feel a "shown to be righteous" moment coming...
Let's AGAIN, suppose you are right. Suppose the second sentence wasn't even written or it really does mean "shown to be righteous", how does one quote from ONE Father constitute an "argument" or a "dispute" within the early Church? Do you have ANY quotes from other Fathers or ANYONE IN THE FIRST THREE CENTURIES OF CHRISTENDOM, who argue or dispute that good deeds are or are not NECESSARY for salvation?
You said you agreed, and then disagreed. Paul is talking about works, and he defines them not as circumcision and law but as "work for wages". Two quite different definitions, to everyone who has ever read those two statements. So why would you agree and then disagree?
I agreed with you that "works" means "works for wages" for the sake of argument, remember? Paul does contrast "works for wages" to faith in Romans, so we must consider what he means, but in the "faith vs works" sections of his letters, the context is OVERWHELMINGLY clear that he is talking about "works of the law" and circumcision.
Not true. In fact Judaism of the time thought that works-of-law put someone in favor by God. That is, God favored ("graced") works done in faith.
LOL...How is this different than putting God in obligation? If, by "working", the person was put "in favor by God", wouldn't that necessarily mean God PAYS the "favored" man for his "work"? Is it also Jewish theology that God might REFUSE to "favor" a man if he does the work, or is God OBLIGATED to favor the man for the work done? I think you are splitting hairs.
This is like saying, "You can't have a surprise birthday party because then you'd be expecting it." It's self-inconsistent. Someone who isn't expecting repayment can't do something and expect repayment with God's salvation! So what you're saying, because it's self-inconsistent, is impossible. God isn't trying to find works with no expectation in order to save people. God is using faith to develop righteousness in the whole man, and He has said the very existence of the faith which saves, means His plan shall save the one with saving faith.
WOW...No.
Person 1 goes to the homeless shelter and works with the poor EXPECTING NO REPAYMENT.
Person 2 goes to the Homeless shelter and works with the poor WITH THE EXPECTATION THAT GOD WILL REPAY HIM.
BOTH perform the same exact ACT, though Person 1 did it simply because he loves God and his fellow man, Person 2 did it to EARN something from God.
Person 1's act has salvific value, Person 2's act does not. Paul is speaking against the motives of the act, not the act itself. I don't know why this is so hard to understand.
Again, the main point here is that you believe Paul is NOT talking about doing charitable acts WITHOUT EXPECTING REPAYMENT, in his "faith vs. works" passages. Simple logic dictates, then that he is NOT talking about "faith alone" in AND ONLY IN, his "faith vs. works" passages. He CAN'T be talking about "all deeds", because ONE DEED is excluded. This is your quagmire...
I'll guarantee it does not, because even Jesus performed His acts of righteousness to save us, expecting a reward.
Heb 12:2 "fixing our eyes on Jesus, the author and perfecter of faith, who for the joy set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand of the throne of God."
So either the Apostle is wrong to use Jesus as an example, or this whole idea is wrong about expectations. I prefer to embrace the Apostolic teaching, and reject the medieval one.
OK, I'm confused. You seem to be contradicting every word you have written on this subject so far.
Are you saying that Paul is using Jesus as an example and TEACHING US that we are to perform "acts of righteousness...EXPECTING A REWARD"?
I must be misunderstanding you.