Respectfully, you indicated some measure of agreement in post #37 where you begin by saying,"That's not entirely true", in referance to Zeleste saying the purpose of the law was to "show out the human condition". Therefore it appears that you acknowledge that the law does reveal shall I say,"weakness in the flesh", while pointing to the things that would please God. And here what comes to mind is Romans 7:14-20.
By this, I mean that the result of the Law made sin obvious and that no man could achieve the glory of God without grace from God. In retrospect, it would appear that the Law shows man's condition, the inability to obey it perfectly. It is an effect, not a cause of the creation of the Law, in my opinion. God gave the commandments to Moses and expected them to be obeyed. The Covenant was not based on a sham, but on something men COULD do - with God's aid. "Call upon God"...
Did God purposely trick the Jews by giving them a law that they COULD NOT obey - while telling them it was "not too difficult"??? This is why I cannot imagine God misleading mankind in this way, and that the cause of the Law cannot be convulted with the effect of the Law. God created the Law and commanded the Covenanted people to obey. He gave them the ability to obey, if they only turned to Him. I submit to you a Psalm that in particular speaks of what I am talking about - the Loving God:
Hear, O my people, and I will testify unto thee: O Israel, if thou wilt hearken unto me; There shall no strange god be in thee; neither shalt thou worship any strange god. 10I am the LORD thy God, which brought thee out of the land of Egypt: open thy mouth wide, and I will fill it. But my people would not hearken to my voice; and Israel would none of me. So I gave them up unto their own hearts' lust: and they walked in their own counsels. Oh that my people had hearkened unto me, and Israel had walked in my ways! I should soon have subdued their enemies, and turned my hand against their adversaries. The haters of the LORD should have submitted themselves unto him: but their time should have endured for ever. 16He should have fed them also with the finest of the wheat: and with honey out of the rock should I have satisfied thee. Psalm 81:8-16
OH, if only they would follow me. Nothing there about "Oh, they cannot follow me because I made a law that no one could keep"!!! Note, God is not demanding perfect Law following. JUST TURN TO ME! PUT ASIDE FALSE GODS.
Now above you say,"The Law's intent is the opposite, point the way to God. That we don't follow the Law is our human condition, not the fault of the Law. Certainly, the Law points out where we fail, but that is not why God gave us the Law!" As I understand it, it is impossible for God to give a law that does testify to righteousness and yet does not testify to unrighteousness.
Agreed. But remember, God set up a system of repentance and conversion WITHIN the Law itself. Yom Kippur and the sacrificial system "enabled" God to put aside sin until the Christ came (according to Hebrews).
The law given to sinners therefore must by default reveal them as sinners.
That would be the effect of the Law. Not the cause of its existence. This effect is not entirely unwanted, since it allows men in sin to repent and call upon God.
For we know that sin appeared in man apart from the law even as righteousness now appears in Christ apart from the law even while the law testifies to his righteousness while also testifying to our sin. Hence I see us all debating an issue laced in semantics, and full of opportunity for misunderstanding. In the big picture I believe the reason for the law is to destroy vanity (the works of Satan) through the cross. Hebrews 2:14.
I believe that the purpose of ANY Law, Mosaic, Natural, Divine - is to call men to union with God. If one does "x" faithfully, God is pleased. This Law is God's will for man. It is how man responds in the Covenantal relationship.
If I may be so bold, to point out some differing perspectives of the phrases "revealing the human condition" and "leading to God". Does God use the law to prove to men that they have a goodness given by God that they fail to use to please God, which shows a lack of love for God? Or...Does God use the law to prove His Spirit is what makes men good?
I think the Law does both, at least that is how I read the Psalms. "Send me your Spirit, oh Lord". I believe that the faithful follower of God in the OT did not attribute his righteousness to his own inherent ability. Such Jews were well aware of their dependency upon God to know the Law and obey it. Cue up Psalm 119, over and over again, this seems to be the subject.
Therefore because of lack of esteem after this manner, He will not give us His righteousness in fullness until we fully admit that? All of this is lost in semantics and is the center of much controversy. I would hope we understand that the law points to Love while Love fulfills the law and I think it will be vain to take it for granted either way.
I agree with your conclusion, but the original problem remains, as far as WHY did God make the Law. The answer will tell us a lot about WHO we think God is and His attributes. Is God a God of Love Who desires to have His Love rebound back to Him? If so, it would seem that "God created the Law to show man he was despicable" just doesn't seem to fit together with the idea that God is Love. Such a God is not a misleading God Who would say that the Law is not too difficult to follow - when it was "impossible", according to some.
Regards