Well again Pauls epistles explain that the commandments produce evil desires in the flesh. The written code in fact holds a person in bondage to their flesh. If a man seeks to serve God by the written code they are in fact in the flesh. But when we reckon ourselves dead to the written code, with Christ and alive to God in the Spirit, we are set free from these sinful passions. So the written code of the law, makes the flesh master over the spirit, and enslaves a mans soul to sin.
I understand what you are saying. There is nothing good in the flesh that would keep the law. So in effect the law and it's requirement of a discipline that we cannot do because we are flesh has condemned us all to death under it's provisions. Why would God want to condemn all men as sinners and worthy of death? Answer: So as to gather up in mercy. Why does God wish to gather up in mercy? Answer: So that no man may hypocritically boast of righteousness and so that sins may be forgiven.
So why does scripture say we cannot sin because his seed remains inside us? You have pointed to adultery as even looking at another woman to lust after her as a sin in the heart. If a man holds his head down as a woman walks by because he fears lusting after her, does he display the seed of Christ? Or is it that because he has the seed of Christ he is able to look upon a beautiful naked woman who is not his wife and not lust? What is the nature of this sin that lusts and what is the Truth that defeats it? And to further the point, if a man is gay and he comes to Christ, does he then cease to lust after men and become attracted to women? For we know that God gave men over to the flesh and it's lusts to become abominations. In Christ, is this reversed by some degree, or is it a situation of his grace is sufficient for thee, or both?
Some very good points Childeye and thank you for seeking truth, it is a breath of fresh air. First as it relates to 1 John, one must see that John is speaking to three groups of believers. Children, young men, and fathers. He gives revelation to all three and as one grows one understands more of his epistle. For instance in the first chapter he says that all have sin. This is the same teaching as Paul, we all have the sin of the flesh. The promise of sure forgiveness is to carry the child unto the next level of growth. The young man has through the Word become "spiritual" meaning he does not consider himself as a "mere man" but a spiritual son of God.
In the spirit we are complete in Christ. As spiritual beings, we cannot sin. "Blessed is the man in whom the Lord will not impute sin" One who walks in the spirit has "reckoned himself dead indeed to sin" He sees that his flesh has been crucified with Christ and sin in the flesh has been judged in His Body.
Now before we go into the correct biblical correction of a believer, I want to see if you understand the points I have made to this point?
I an sorry things are getting rough for you in this forum. Thank you for responding to my post. I thank you for your pause here. I would take this time to make sure I understand. Above you have said, "
in the spirit we are complete in Christ". To me, in Christ means prepared to carry my cross and forgive all tresspasses against me and return good for evil in the knowledge that we all have sin in the flesh, a pure and humble unconditional Love. Also that there is a spiritual enemy that would seek my destruction and that the Holy Spirit corrects my thoughts to guard me from the lies of Satan. Please elaborate on this as much as possible if necessary, or correct me so that I understand what you mean by "complete in Christ".
I certainly can understand that the spirit does not sin, for that spirit is what proceeds from God. "Blessed is the man in whom the Lord will not impute sin". But of course he is blessed, but why has God not imputed sin for him if other men remain cursed?
Then you say, "reckoned himself dead indeed to sin." How has he reckoned himself dead to sin because he walks in the spirit? Is Christ some sort of placebo dependent upon a man's reckoning? Would it then be accurate to say, he reckons himself dead to sin because he reckons he walks in the spirit? Perhaps you simply mean to say, he forgives others and the lust of his flesh dies in the process. Please address this.
Finally you say, He sees that his flesh has been crucified with the Christ and sin in the flesh has been judged in his body. You seem to be describing what this reckoning means. Now I read the last half. "and sin has been judged in his body". Whose body? The body Jesus walked the earth in or the sinners body, the flesh in general? For I don't see my flesh crucified with the Christ, since I was not even born yet. Therefore I must assume you are refering to the body of Christ as in the church wherein I forgive the tresspasses of others and return good for evil which afore was what I called, "in Christ" ?? Also, What do you mean by sin has been judged in his body? Do you mean to say condemned in the flesh? For the body is not judgeable other than to say it is made of dirt. I appreciate your time with this.